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Zinaida [17]
2 years ago
9

Colt Systems will have EBIT this coming year of $ 17million. It will also spend $7 million on total capital expenditures and inc

reases in net working capital, and have $3 million in depreciation expenses. Colt is currently an all-equity firm with a corporate tax rate of 35% and a cost of capital of 10%. a. If Colt's free cash flows are expected to grow by 8.7% per year, what is the market value of its equity today?b. If the interest rate on its debt is 8%, how much can Colt borrow now and still have non-negative net income this coming year? c. Is there a tax incentive today for Colt to choose a debt-to-value ratio that exceeds 49%? Explain.
Business
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a) market value of equity 589,488,461.54

b) it can loan up to 212,500,000

c) as the liabilities provides a tax shield because, interest expense are tax deductible while dividends don't The companu find a tax incentive to take debt

Explanation:

Free Cash Flow for the firm:

17,000,000 earnings before taxes

- 7,000,000 CAPEX

+ 3,000,000 depreciation

<u>-   5,950,000</u> income tax*

    7,050,000 FFCF

we solve using the gordon grow model:

7,050,000x1.087 / (0.10 - 0.087) =  589,488,461.54  

<em>* </em>income tax:<em>   </em>17,000,000 x 35% = 5,950,000

b) We can consider the income as the installment of a perpetuity

17,000,000 / 0.08 = 212,500,000

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Freytag Corporation's variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours. The company has established the following
Serjik [45]

Answer:

a. -$783 Unfavorable

b. 550 Favorable

Explanation:

a. The computation of Variable Overhead Rate Variance is shown below:-

Variable Overhead Rate Variance = Actual hours × (Standard Variable Overhead rate per hour - Actual Variable Overhead rate per hour)

= 8,700 × ($4.10 - ($36,540 ÷ 8,700)

=  8,700 × ($4.10 - $4.19)

= 8,700 × -$0.09

= -$783 Unfavorable

b. The computation of Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance is shown below:-

Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance = Standard Variable Overhead Rate per Hour ×  (Standard Hours for Actual Production - Actual Hours)

= 5.5 × ((5.5 × 1,600) - 8,700)

= 5.5 × (8,800 - 8,700)

= 5.5 × 100

= 550 Favorable

5 0
1 year ago
Consider the following misperceptions model of the economy. AD: Y = 600 + 10(M/P) SRAS: Y equals top enclose Y plus P minus P t
Illusion [34]

Answer:

Consider the following misperceptions model of the economy. AD: Y =600 + 10(M/P) SRAS: Y=Y +P - pe Okun's Law: (Y - Ý )/Y = - 2ệu - 4) Let 7 =750, ū=0.05, M =600, and pe =40. a. b. What is the price level? (2%) Suppose there is an unanticipated increase in the nominal money supply to 800. What is the short-run equilibrium level of output, the unemployment rate, and the price level? (3%) When price expectations adjust fully, what is the price level? (3%) C.

Explanation:

A) from SRAS : Y = 750+P-40  

Y = 710+P

From AD: Y = 600+ 10*600/P

Y = 600 + 6000/P

So solving two eqn

710+P = 600+6000/P

110 + P = 6000/P

P* = 40

Y* = 150

b) now M = 800

So new AD :

Y = 600+8000/P

So, as Y = 710+P

So at eqm

710+P = 600+8000/P

110+P = 8000/P

P' = 50

Y' = 710+50 = 760

from Okun law

(760-750)/750 = -2(u - .05)

1/75 = -2u + .1

2u = .0867

u = .0433

c) when price expectations adjust,then

Y = Y_bar = 750 : potential GDP

SRAS shifts upwards

So from AD:

750=600+10*800/P

P = 800/15

= 53.33

4 0
2 years ago
Tomey Corporation has two production departments, Forming and Finishing. The company uses a job-order costing system and compute
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

a. $5,604

Explanation:

Forming Department overhead cost = Fixed manufacturing overhead cost + (Variable overhead cost per machine-hour × Total machine-hours in the department)

= $99,000 + ($2.10 per machine-hour × 18,000 machine-hours)

= $99,000 +$37,800 = $136,800

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated total manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated total amount of the allocation base incurred

= $136,800 ÷ 18,000 machine-hours

= $7.60 per machine-hour

Overhead applied to a particular job = Predetermined overhead rate × Amount of the allocation base incurred by the job

= $7.60 per machine-hour × 90 machine-hours

= $684

Finishing Department overhead cost = Fixed manufacturing overhead cost + (Variable overhead cost per direct labor-hour × Total direct labor-hours in the department)

= $70,400 + ($3.70 per direct labor-hour × 8,000 direct labor-hours)

= $70,400 + $29,600 = $100,000

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated total manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated total amount of the allocation base incurred

= $100,000 ÷8,000 direct labor-hours = $12.50 per direct labor-hour

Overhead applied to a particular job = Predetermined overhead rate × Amount of the allocation base incurred by the job

= $12.50 per direct labor-hour × 60 direct labor-hours

= $750

                                              Forming      Finishing       Total

Direct materials........................$940           $350           $1,290

Direct labor...............................$960           $1,920         $2,880

Manufacturing overhead.......$684           $750            $1,434

Total cost of Job T617........................................................$5,604

4 0
1 year ago
St. Augustine Corporation originally budgeted for $360,000 of fixed overhead at 100% of normal production capacity. Production w
Ksju [112]

Answer:

$9,000 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of the total fixed overhead variance is shown below:

= Actual fixed overhead costs - Budgeted fixed overhead

where,

Budgeted fixed overhead  is $360,000

And, the Actual fixed overhead cost is computed below:

= Actual fixed overhead × Actual production  ÷ budgeted production

= $360,000 × 11,700 units ÷ 12,000 units

= $351,000

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $351,000 - $360,000

= $9,000 unfavorable

5 0
1 year ago
Lanjan Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. Operating data for the first processing depar
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

Cost per Equivalent Unit = $663, 836/72,000 units = $9,220

Explanation:

We are asked to determine the cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs for the month of June

Step 1: we determine the quantity of units that were transferred to the next department

Quantity transferred = Opening Work in Progress + Units Started and in production - The Closing inventory of Work in Progress

= 14,000 units +76,000 units -20,000 units = 70, 000 units

Step 2: Calculate the number of Equivalent units in production

Equivalent Units in Production= Units transferred + The Closing Inventory of work in Progress

= 70,000 units + (20,000 units x 10%)

= 70,000 units + 2,000 units

=72,000 units

Step 3: We calculate the Cost per Equivalent Unit

= The Total Cost of Production / The Equivalent Units (determined in step 2)

Total Cost =Cost in beginning WIP Inventory + Additional Conversion cost

= $92,218 + $571,618= $663,836

Cost per Equivalent Unit = $663, 836/72,000 units = $9,220

8 0
1 year ago
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