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s344n2d4d5 [400]
2 years ago
8

A perpetuity will pay $1000 per year, starting five years after the perpetuity is purchased. What is the present value (PV) of t

his perpetuity on the date that it is purchased, given that the interest rate is 4%?
Business
1 answer:
nika2105 [10]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$21,370.1071

Explanation:

The computation of the present value of this perpetuity is shown below:

= The present value after five years + present value on the date of purchase

where,

The present value after five years is

= ($1,000) ÷ (1.04)^5

= $821.9271

And, the present value on the date of purchase is

=  $821.9271 ÷ 4%

= $20,548.18

Hence, the present value of the perpetuity is

= $821,.9271 + $20,548.18

= $21,370.1071

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True or False: A small number of institutional investors are often able and motivated to bring direct shareholder pressure on a
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer: True

Explanation:

The agency problem is when there is a conflict of interest between the management of a company and the stockholders that exists in the company.

In order to help reduce the potential agency conflicts that at occur during the course of a business, a few of the institutional investors often bring in the pressure of the direct shareholder on the management of a firm. They believe by involving the shareholders, the management will try not to have any differences with the shareholders and thereby reducing agency problem.

3 0
2 years ago
Which method of international expansion causes the least amount of risk? multiple choice joint venture licensing wholly owned su
svetlana [45]
<span>Exporting has the least amount of risk. This is because the company is simply selling its wares to other businesses and consumers, without having to worry about licensing the product, getting permissions from other governments, or having to jump through loopholes to get the product in the hands of the intended audience.</span>
5 0
2 years ago
TH Manufacturers expects to generate cash flows of $129,600 for the next two years. At the end of the two years the business wil
arsen [322]

Answer:

Vo  = <u>C1  </u>    +        <u>C2 + V2</u>

        1 + k              (1 + K)2

Vo = <u>$129,600  </u> +   <u>$129,600 + $3,200,000</u>

        1 + 0.14            (1 + 0.14)2

Vo = $113,684.21  + $2,562,019.08

Vo = $2,675,703.29

The correct answer is C

Explanation:  

The current value of the business equals cashflow in year 1 divided by 1 + K plus the aggregate of cashflow and sales value in year 2 divided by 1 + k raised to power 2.

7 0
2 years ago
A firm is experiencing a loss of $5,000 per year. The firm has fixed costs of $8,000 per year.a. Should the firm operate in the
kramer

Answer:

(a) Continue to operate.

(b) Shut down

(c) Continue to operate.

Explanation:

(a) It is given that the firm will experiencing a loss of $5000. Therefore, it means that a loss of $5,000 is borne by the producer of the fixed cost. It is a portion of fixed cost but the firm will continue to operate in the short run if it covers all of the variable cost in the short run.

(b) The firms in the long run try to cover all of its variable and fixed cost. If this situation persists then this firm unable to cover its all costs. Therefore, the firm will shut down its operation and go out of the business.

(c) Now, if the firm’s fixed costs are $2,000.

There is a reduction in the fixed cost by $6,000

Previously firm able to cover = $8,000 - $5,000

                                                = $3,000

It means that it cover its fixed cost and hence, the firm will operate in both short run and long run.

4 0
2 years ago
A lumber mill paid $70,000 for logs that produced 200,000 board feet of lumber in 3 different grades and amounts as follows: Gra
natita [175]

Answer:

The multiple choices:

$35,000.

$23,333.

$70,000.

$17,500.

$0.

The fourth option,$17,500 allocated cost is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The joint cost of $70,000 can be apportioned between the logs of different grades using the sales price of each log as highlighted below:

The sales value of each =board feet*bd. ft

Structural market price =25,000*1350/1000=$33,750

No 1 common market price=75,000*750/1000=$56,250

No 2 common market price=100,000*300/1000=$30,000

Total market price                                                  $120,000

The joint cost allocated to No.2 common =market price of no.2 common /total market value*joint cost

the joint cost allocated to no.2=$30,000/$120,000*$70,000=$17,500      

8 0
2 years ago
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