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EastWind [94]
2 years ago
12

Your insurance firm processes claims, through its newer, larger, high-tech facility, and its older, smaller low-tech facility. E

ach month, the high-tech facility handles 10,000 claims, incurs $100,000 in fixed costs, and $100,000 in variable costs. Each month, the low-tech facility handles 2,000 claims, incurs $16,000 in fixed costs, and $24,000 in variable costs. If you anticipate a decrease in the number of claims, where will you lay off workers?
Business
1 answer:
Arte-miy333 [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The answer is:

Lay-off workers in "low-tech facility" i.e. $12 per claim.

Explanation:

<h2>Step 1:</h2><h3>The total fixed cost:</h3>

It is the cost, that the producer has to bear irrespective of the level of production.

<h3>Total variable cost:</h3>

It is the cost that alters with the changes with the changes in the production level.

<h2>Step 2:</h2>

The insurance firm has two facilities for claim process:

1: High-tech facility - new

2: Low-tech facility - old

<h3>High-tech facility:</h3>

Claims handled in a month = 10,000

Fixed costs = $100,000

Variable costs = $100,000

<h3>Low-tech facility:</h3>

Claims handled in a month = 2,000

Fixed costs = $16,000

Variable costs = $24,000

<h2>Step 3:</h2>

The fixed costs have to be borne, because they are unavoidable, but the variable costs can be ignored.

In high-tech facility, average variable cost per claim = $100,000/10,000 = $10 per claim

In low-tech facility, average variable cost per claim = $24,000/2,000 = $12 per claim

<h2>Step 4:</h2><h3>Conclusion:</h3>

If there is a decrease in the number of claims, the workers should be laid-off in low-tech facility, because variable cost per claim is higher in low-tech facility i.e. $12 per claim.

This will help in reducing the costs.

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A stock index is valued at $800 and pays a continuous dividend at the rate of 3% per year. The 6-month futures contract on that
yan [13]

Answer:

Possible options:

A. 38

B. 40

C. 42

D. There is no arbitrage opportunity.

Answer is B

Explanation:

With the given data, the no-arbitrage futures price should be; 800e(0.025-0.03)*0.50 =798−Since the market price of the futures contract is lower than this price there is an arbitrage opportunity. The futures−contract could be purchased and the index sold.−

Arbitrage profit is 798 - 758 = 40

8 0
2 years ago
Huron has provided the following year-end balances: Cash, $25,000 Patents, $7,900 Accounts receivable, $9,300 Property, plant, a
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$74,900

Explanation:

Given that,

Cash = $25,000

Patents, = $7,900

Accounts receivable, = $9,300

Property, plant, and equipment, = $98,700

Prepaid insurance, = $3,600

Accumulated depreciation, = $10,000

Inventory, = $37,000

Retained earnings, = 15,500

Trademarks, = $12,600

Accounts payable, = $8,000

Goodwill, = $11,000

Therefore,

Huron's current assets:

= Cash + Accounts receivable + Prepaid insurance + Inventory

= $25,000 + $9,300 + $3,600 + $37,000

= $74,900

3 0
2 years ago
Define what liquidity means by completing the following sentence. Liquidity refers to an asset which can be readily used to pay
Nesterboy [21]

Answer:

Liabilities

Explanation:

'Liquidity' is described as the 'asset's property of being able to be sold without affecting its value or the degree to which it can be easily converted into cash.' If the liquidity ratio of a company is high, then its ability to pay off its current liabilities is high as well. Therefore, the company can pay off the debtors with immediate effect and thus, it would be able to meet its short-term financial commitments. This is the key reason for people's high investments in the companies having a higher liquidity ratio as they analyze the debt paying capability of the company first.

3 0
2 years ago
Sales are $1.44 million, cost of goods sold is $570,000, depreciation expense is $144,000, other operating expenses is $294,000,
anygoal [31]

Answer:

Times Interest earned ratio is 4.41 times

Explanation:

Times interest earned ratio measure the business capability to pay the interest over its liabilities from its current earning.

As interest expense value is not given it is calculated by the net of Earning before interest and tax and Income before tax

Net Income = Addition to Retained Earning + Dividend Paid = $133,100 + ( 84,000 x $1 ) = $133,100 + $84,000 = $217,100

Income before tax = $217,100 x 100% / ( 100% - 35%) = $334,000

Earning before interest and tax = Sales - Cost of goods sold - depreciation expense - other operating expenses = 1,440,000 - 570,000 - 144,000 - 294,000 = $432,000

Interest Expense = Earning before interest and tax - Income before tax = $432,000 - 334,000 = $98,000

Times Interest earned ratio = Earning before Interest and tax /  Interest expense = $432,000 / $98000 = 4.41 time

4 0
2 years ago
Reynolds Construction's value of operations is $750 million based on the free cash flow valuation model. Its balance sheet shows
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

option (d) $500

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Reynolds Construction's value of operations = $750 million

short-term investments = $50 million

accounts payable = $100 million

notes payable = $100 million

long-term debt = $200 million

common stock = $40 million

retained earnings = $160 million

Now,

Firm value of equity

= Free cash flow value + Investments - Debt - Notes payable

= $750 million + $50 million - $200 million - $100 million

= $500 million

Hence,

the correct answer is option (d) $500

6 0
2 years ago
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