Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
When it produces and sells 4,000 units, its average costs per unit are as follows:
Variable manufacturing overhead $1.40
Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 2.60
Units produced= 3,000
<u>To calculate the unitary indirect manufacturing cost, you can use two different methods</u>. The variable method only uses the variable manufacturing overhead. The absorption method uses the total unitary overhead.
Total fixed overhead= 2.6*4,000= 10,400
<u>Variable costing method</u>:
Unitary indirect manufacturing cost= $1.4
<u>Absorption costing method:</u>
Unitary fixed overhead= 10,400/3,000= $3.47
Unitary indirect manufacturing cost= 1.4 + 3.47= $4.87
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
a. Direct material = 4 × 33300 = Make $133200 ; Net income increase
Direct labor = 5 × 33300 = Make $166500 ; Net income increase
Variable costing= 0.61 × $166500 = Make $101565 ; Net income increase
Fixed manufacturing = Make 43100 ; Buy 43100 ;
Purchase price = 13.16 × 33300 = Buy $438228 ; Net income decrease
Total annual cost:
Make: $444365
Buy: $481328
Net income decrease = $36963
b. No, Pottery Ranch should not buy the finials. There's an incremental cost of $36963.
c. Incremental revenue = $50,367
Incremental cost = $36963
Incremental revenue = $50367 - $36963 = $13404
In this case, it should be bought.
Answer:
4.09%
Explanation:
For computing the after cost of debt we have to applied the RATE formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $1,919
Future value or Face value = $2,000
PMT = 2,000 × 6.3% ÷ 2 = $63
NPER = 17 years × 2 = 34 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER,PMT,-PV,FV,type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula,
1. The pretax cost of debt is 3.35% × 2 = 6.70%
2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be
= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)
= 6.70% × ( 1 - 0.39)
= 4.09%
Answer:
A. Money left over after taxes are paid - Disposable income
B. Quantity theory of money helps explain the shape of this - Real
C. Part of GDP s definition that captures the quality of goods and services - Market Value
D. Caused by a fall in the money supply - Final
E. Part of GDP s definition that means you exclude used goods and services - Real
F. Sticky prices/wages justifies its shape - Final
G. Part of GDP s definition that means you exclude intermediary goods and services - Market Value
H. Used to make loans - Excess reserves
I. Used to cover withdraws - Disposable income
J. Interest rates are at their lower bound - Real
K. Represents the economy s fundamentals, such as population, capital, and technology - LRAS
L. Adjusted for inflation Final
M. Caused by a collapse of the stock market - Market Value
Explanation:
Long run aggregate supply is adjusted based on the products produced in the country. The supply rate is also adjusted based on demand factor. GDP is the monetary value of all goods and services produced in the country during a certain period.
Answer:
Expected Dividend Yield is 10.4%
Explanation:
As we know that the Expected Dividend Yield for Portman’s Stock can be calculated using the following formula:
Expected Dividend Yield = [D0 x (1 + g) / Intrinsic Value (Step1)] * 100
Here
Dividend just paid is $2.16 per share
The growth rate for the Portman's stock is 16% for the first year
Ke is 13.6%
Intrinsic Value = $24.09 (See Step 1)
By putting the above values in the above equation, we have:
Expected Dividend Yield = [$2.16 x (1 + 0.16) / $24.09] x 100
= 10.4%
Step 1. Intrinsic Value can be calculated using the following formula:
Intrinsic Value = D1 / (1 + r)^1 + Horizon Value (Step 2) / (1 + r)^1
Here
Growth (g) will be 3.2% for the year 2 because D2 = D1 * (1 + g)
Horizon value = D1 * (1 + g) / (Ke – g) = $2.5056 * (1 + 3.2%) / (13.6% – 3.2%)
= $2.5858 / 0.0752 = $24.86 per share
So by putting the above values in the step 1, we have:
= $2.5056 / (1 + 0.136)1 + $24.86/(1 + 0.136)1
= $24.09 per share
