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gulaghasi [49]
2 years ago
11

Ward Doering Auto Sales is considering offering a special service contract that will cover the total cost of any service work re

quired on leased vehicles. From experience, the company manager estimates that yearly service costs are approximately normally distributed, with a mean of $150 and a standard deviation of $25.
a. If the company offers the service contract to customers for a yearly charge of $200, what is the probability that any one customer’s service costs will exceed the contract price of $200?

b. What is Ward’s expected profit per service contract?
Business
1 answer:
kodGreya [7K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. The probability that any one customers service costs will exceed the contract price of $200 is 0.0228

b. Warda expected profit per service contract is $50

Explanation:

a. In order to calculate  the probability that any one customers service costs will exceed the contract price of $200 we would have to calculate first the z value as follows:

z=x-μ/σ

z=$200-$150/$25

z=2

Therefore, probability that any one customers service costs will exceed the contract price of $200 is p(x>$200)=p(z>2)

=1-p(z≤2)

=1-0.9772

=0.0228

The probability that any one customers service costs will exceed the contract price of $200 is 0.0228

b. To calculate Warda expected profit per service contract we would have to make the following calculation:

Warda expected profit per service contract=service charge per contract-expected cost

Warda expected profit per service contract=$200-$150

Warda expected profit per service contract=$50

Warda expected profit per service contract is $50

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Information sharing reduces information lead time, enabling each organization to plan according to end demand and not according to the orders placed immediately downstream.

Explanation:

The Bullwhip effect is a trend of the distribution channel where estimates result of inefficiencies in the supply chain. Of reaction to fluctuations the market demand the inventory swings are growing, as the supply chain continues to grow.

The effect of the bullfight generally flows up the supply chain, starting from the retailer, wholesaler, dealer, producer and then the supplier of the raw materials.

This method does not include daily fluctuations to run level. Another way of reducing the bullwhip effect is by eliminating the delays along the supply chain. In general, the fluctuations in the supply chain can be reduced by 80% by cutting order to supply time by half in both real supply chains and supply chain simulations

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2 years ago
Bau Long-Haul, Inc., is considering the purchase of a tractor-trailer that would cost $302,820, would have a useful life of 7 ye
Kruka [31]

Answer:

20%

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

IRR can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow for year zero =-302,820

Cash flow each year from year one to seven = 84,000

IRR = 20%

To find the IRR using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.

I hope my answer helps you

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2 years ago
Dinklage Corp. has 7 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $68, and the book value per share is
eimsori [14]

Answer:

WACC = 15.08%

Explanation:

Some information is missing:

"The first bond issue has a face value of $70 million, a coupon rate of 6 percent, and sells for 97 percent of par. The second issue has a face value of $40 million, a coupon rate of 6.5 percent, and sells for 108 percent of par. The first issue matures in 21 years, the second in 6 years."

In order to calculate WACC we must first determine the YTM and market values of the 2 bonds.

bond 1:

market value = $70,000,000 x 0.97 = $67,900,000

YTM = {4,200,000 + [(70,000,000 - 67,900,000)/21]} / [(70,000,000 + 67,900,000)/2] = 4,300,000 / 68,950,000 = 6.24%

bond 2:

market value = $40,000,000 x 1.08 = $43,200,000

YTM = {2,600,000 + [(40,000,000 - 43,200,000)/6]} / [(40,000,000 + 43,200,000)/2] = 2,066,667 / 41,600,000 = 4.97%

weighted average cost of debt:

total value of debt = $67,900,000 + $43,200,000 = $111,100,000

weighted average cost = [($67,900,000/$111,100,000) x 6.24%] + [($43,200,000/$111,100,000) x 4.97%] = 3.814% + 1.933% = 5.75%

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$68 = ($8 x 1.05) / (Re - 5%)

Re - 5% = $8.40 / $68 = 12.35%

Re = 17.35%

outstanding stock's market value = 7,000,000 x $68 = $476,000,000

WACC = [($476,000,000/$587,100,000) x 17.35%] + [($111,100,000/$587,100,000) x 5.75% x 0.79] = 14.07% + 1.01% = 15.08%

7 0
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Which of the following is not an input to the aggregate planning process? A. demand forecast B. cost information C. policies on
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Answer:

The correct answer is E. master production schedules.

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Master production schedules is not an input to the aggregate planning process  all other options are its input,

Aggregate planning process is an attempt to respond to predicted demand within the constraints set by product, process and location decisions.

Hence, master production schedules is not a relevant input for this planning process but can be a result of the aggregate planning process. In other words master production schedule is formed after aggregated planning has been completed.

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The Baldwin company will continue to train their existing workforce at their current level to help reduce turnover and improve p
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Answer: $1,600

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From the Attached document, the Baldwin company does 80 hours of training for employees.

The Training costs per Employee is;

= 80 * 20

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