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sattari [20]
1 year ago
12

Which of the following regarding Master Budgeting is true?

Business
2 answers:
konstantin123 [22]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

c. When preparing a direct materials budget, the units of raw material needed to meet production should be added to desired ending inventory and the beginning inventory for raw materials should be subtracted to determine the amount of raw materials to be purchased.

Explanation:

The master budget refers to the budget in which the expenses, sales, purchases, are recorded

It can be sales budgets, purchase budgets, etc that comes under the operating budget

While preparing the direct material budget, the raw material required to be purchased should be find out by using the following formula

= Ending inventory balance + cost of sales - beginning inventory balance

Or we can say

Cost of goods sold = beginning inventory + raw material purchase - ending inventory

hence, the correct option is c.

NARA [144]1 year ago
6 0

Answer:

Statement A, C and D

Explanation:

a. All the direct expenses budget is prepared in order to compute direct material, direct labour and other manufacturing overheads in order to compute the production budget cost. As all these are essentially required in order to make a production budget.

b. The first budget is usually the revenue or sales forecast budget.

c. Direct material to be bought = Direct Materials required in production + Closing inventory to be maintained - Opening inventory already available.

d. Cash budget not only comprises of inflow, but outflow is also as important as inflow. When all the incomes and expenses are budgeted then cash budget is prepared.

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Stangol Co. uses process costing to account for the production of highlighter pens. Direct materials are added at the beginning
Otrada [13]

Answer:

$55,565.76

Explanation:

Calculation for the value of ending inventory using the weighted average method

First step is to find the Equivalent units

Equivalent units = (4,800 × 50%)

Equivalent units = 2,400

Second step is to find the conversion costs

Conversion costs (4,800 × 100%)

Conversion costs= 4,800

Last step is to calculate for the value of ending inventory

Ending inventory= ($8.91 × 2,400) + ($7.1212× 4,800)

Ending inventory=$21,384+$34,181.76

Ending inventory=$55,565.76

Therefore the value of ending inventory using the weighted average method would be closest to: $55,565.76

7 0
1 year ago
Marcie and her husband, Franklin, each own 50 shares of Chestnut, Inc. Sally, Marcie's old high school friend, owns the remainin
RSB [31]

Answer:

$38,000 Dividend

Explanation:

Based on the information given the tax treatment of the redemption to Marcie will be $38,000 dividend reason been that her husband shares was been attributed to her, and Since she owns 60 shares her remaining 10 shares including that of her husband 50 shares of Chestnut's will be 110 shares calculated as 150 shares - 40 shares outstanding.

Therefore when we look at this 60 shares/110 shares is greater than 50% which means that Marcie fails the 50% test which makes the redemption to be treated as a dividend.

Hence, the tax treatment of the basis of the shares redeemed will be $38,000 Dividend.

8 0
2 years ago
Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $38
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the NPV of the project using the discount cash flow model:

the initial investment = $385,000 (depreciable machinery) + $20,000 spare parts + $3,100 = $408,100

depreciation expense (five year MACRS class)

  • $385,000 x 20% = $77,000
  • $385,000 x 32% = $123,200
  • $385,000 x 19.20% = $73,920
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 5.76% = $22,176

Cash flow year 1 = [($145,000 - $77,000) x (1 - 22%)] + $77,000 = $130,040

Cash flow year 2 = [($145,000 - $123,200) x (1 - 22%)] + $123,200 = $140,204

Cash flow year 3 = [($145,000 - $73,920) x (1 - 22%)] + $73,920 = $129,362

Cash flow year 4 = {[($145,000 - $44,352) x (1 - 22%)] + $44,352} + $3,100 (recovered working capital) + $45,000 (salvage value) + $4,736 (tax credit on impairment loss*) = $175,693

*since the carrying value at the end of year 4 is $66,528 and the salvage value is $45,000, an impairment loss will = $21,528. This will result in lower taxes by $21,528 x 22% = $4,736

the NPV of the project = -$408,100 + $130,040/1.09 + $140,204/1.09² + $129,362/1.09³ + $175,693/1.09⁴ = -$408,100 + $119,303 + $118,007 + $99,891 + $124,465 = $53,566

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

4 0
2 years ago
Management in life you have lunch with a friend who was recently promoted to a management position. “congratulations!” you say.
Andre45 [30]
You can offer these time management tips:
1. Decide on the most important tasks and complete those ones first.
2. Sleep for at least seven hours and begin your day very early and create task list for the day.
3. When handling a task, give your whole attention and focus to that task until you are through with it.
4. Learn to say 'no' when necessary.
5. Minimize distractions as much as possible.
6. Do not procrastinate.
7. Take break when necessary.
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5 0
2 years ago
MLB The company may build a $20M facility now to handle anticipated market demand for the next 10 years. Alternatively, the comp
densk [106]

Answer:

Alternative 1 has present worth of $20,000,000.00

Alternative 2  has present worth of $18,543,040.00  

Explanation:

The present of the first alternative is the cost of the building the facility now,year zero which is $20 million.The value can be validated as follows:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor  present worth

                                                                      cash flow* discount factor

0            $20,00,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1            $20,000,000

The PW of the second alternative:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor            present worth

                                                                              cash flow* discount factor

0            $10,000,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1                      $10,000,000

4             $8,000,000        1/(1+10%)^4=0.68301           $5,464,080

7             $6,000,000         1/(1+10%)^7=0.51316            $3,078,960

Present worth of second alternative                            $ 18,543,040

Hence alternative with PW is better as it has lower present worth of $ 18,543,040.00  

5 0
2 years ago
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