Answer: A would be the answer hope it helps
Explanation:
The author did not limit himself to literal language because he knew that figurative language would give more expressiveness and depth to the text.
As you did not show the text to which your question refers, it is not possible to show the use of figurative language in the text, but it is possible to state the reasons that led the author to use this type of language.
In the question above, we can see that the author made use of the simile, a figure of speech that allows the comparison between two elements, increasing the meaning between them.
This objective is very common in authors who use any type of figurative language in their texts. This is because figurative language can:
- Intensify parts of the text.
- Make the text deeper.
- Show more expressiveness.
- Create more impactful meanings.
- Force the reader's thinking.
- Approach topics with greater delicacy, or more aggressiveness.
It is important to emphasize that figurative language does not have a literal meaning of the words, but something more subjunctive, unlike the literal language.
More information on the link:
brainly.com/question/1430277?referrer=searchResults
The correct answer is “His desire to explore is greater than his fear of where he is going”. Taken from the short story “<em>By the Waters of Babylon</em>” by Stephen Vincent Benét (1937), the passage presented above narrates the moment when John, the son of a priest, visits the <u>Place of the Gods</u>, also called <u>The Dead Place</u>. This place was destroyed by a great burning. Moreover, the Place of the Gods was said to be inhabited with spirits and demons since then. The place was described as a desolate one and nature has taken over it. Even though the place was forbidden and scary, John embarks on a journey to unravel its mysteries. <u>He does not fear its scary atmosphere</u>, since his insatiable quest for knowledge is far more important.
