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andriy [413]
1 year ago
13

Chubbs Inc.’s manufacturing overhead budget for the first quarter of 2017 contained the following data. Variable Costs Fixed Cos

ts Indirect materials $11,100 Supervisory salaries $35,400 Indirect labor 10,000 Depreciation 7,100 Utilities 7,400 Property taxes and insurance 7,700 Maintenance 6,000 Maintenance 6,000 Actual variable costs were indirect materials $14,800, indirect labor $9,300, utilities $9,800, and maintenance $4,800. Actual fixed costs equaled budgeted costs except for property taxes and insurance, which were $8,300. The actual activity level equaled the budgeted level. All costs are considered controllable by the production department manager except for depreciation, and property taxes and insurance. (a) Prepare a manufacturing overhead flexible budget report for the first quarter. (List variable costs before fixed costs.)
Business
1 answer:
nydimaria [60]1 year ago
3 0

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-&Budget&Variance&Actual\\IL&10,000&700&9,300\\IM&11000&-3,800&14,800\\Utilities&7,400&-2,400&9,800\\Maintenance&6,000&1,200&4,800\\Total  \: Variable&34,400&-4,300&38,700\\Supervisor&35,400&0&35,400\\Depreciation&7,100&0&7100\\PT and insurance&7,700&-600&8,300\\Maintenance&6,000&0&6,000\\Total \: Fixed&56,200&-600&56,800\\Total \: MO&90,600&-4,900&95,500\\\end{array}\right]

Explanation:

We list them and subtract budget - actual

When actual is greater than budget the variance is negatine.

While budget being lower than actual is considered a positive variance.

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Handy Man, Inc., has zero coupon bonds outstanding that mature in eight years. The bonds have a face value of $1,000 and a curre
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

5.657%

Explanation:

Data provided:

Face value = $1,000

Current market price = $640

Time of maturity, t = 8 year

Now,

the compounding formula is given as:

Face value = Current amount × (1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

where,

r is the rate i.e pretax rate of debt

n is the number of times the interest is compounded i.e for semiannual n = 2

thus, on substituting the values, we get

$ 1,000= $ 640 × (1+\frac{r}{2})^{2\times8}

or

1.5625 = (1+\frac{r}{2})^{16}

or

(1+\frac{r}{2}) = 1.0282

or

r = 0.05657

or

pretax cost of debt = 0.05657 × 100% = 5.657%

3 0
1 year ago
Faldo Corp sells on terms that allow customers 45 days to pay for merchandise. Its sales last year were $325,000, and its year-e
scoray [572]

Answer:

The difference is 22.34 days which results in late payments

Explanation:

For computing the DSO we have to compute the accounts receivable turnover ratio which is shown below:

Accounts receivable turnover ratio  = Credit sales ÷ average accounts receivable

= $325,000 ÷ $60,000

= 5.42 times

and the average collection period in days = Total number of days in a year ÷ accounts receivable turnover ratio

= 365 days ÷ 5.42 times

= 67.34 days

Actual credit period is given is 45 days

But the resulted days are 67.34 days

So, the difference is 22.34 days which results in late payments

5 0
1 year ago
To be competitive, ____________ recommended that American firms adopt a new management style that was a hybrid of the approaches
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": William Ouchi, Theory Z.

Explanation:

American professor William Ouchi (born in 1943) proposed the "Theory Z", first described in his book "<em>Theory Z: How American Management Can Meet the Japanese Challenge</em>" which is an approach that explains how firms should develop a strong company philosophy and culture and consensus in decisions.  

Theory Z aims to employee development, as well, by concerning about their well-being, making them generalists instead of specialists, promoting individual responsibility, and monitoring them informally but with formal measures.

6 0
1 year ago
The net cash flows of Advantage Leasing for the next 3 years are $42,000, $49,000 and $64,000 respectively, after which the grow
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

The present value of terminal value is $ 863,689.48  

Explanation:

Terminal value=Cash flows at third year*(1+g)/WACC-g

cash flows at the third year is $64,000

g is the growth rate of net cash flows which is 2% in perpetuity

WACC is 8%

Terminal value=$64,000*(1+2%)/(8%-2%)

                       =$64000*1.02/0.06

                       =$ 1,088,000.00  

The present value of terminal=terminal value*discount factor in year 3

discount factor in year=1/(1+8%)^3=0.793832241

Present value of terminal cash flow=1,088,000.00 *0.79383224

                                                           =$ 863,689.48  

6 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
You have $5,000 to deposit. Regency Bank offers 15 percent per year compounded monthly (1.25 percent per month), while King Bank
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

Regency Bank

A = $98577.46

king Bank

A = $81832.68

Explanation:

Given Data:

principle amount  =$ 5000

rate of interest = 15%

n =12 {compounded months}

t = 20 year

for Regency Bank

investment amount obtained as

A =P\times [1 + \frac{r}{n}]^{nt}

A = 5000 [1 + \frac{0.15}{12}]^{12\times 20}

A = $98577.46

for King Bank

Investment amount obtained as

A =P\times [1 + \frac{r}{n}]^{nt}

Here n = 1

A = 5000 [1 + \frac{0.15}{1}]^{1\times 20}

A = $81832.68

3 0
2 years ago
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