Answer:
$8 per direct labor hours and $2 per direct labor hours
Explanation:
The computation of the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:
Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead ÷ planned activity level
= $480,000 ÷ 60,000 direct labor hours
= $8 per direct labor hours
And, the budgeted variable manufacturing overhead is $2 per direct labor hours
We simply divide the budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead by the planned activity level
Answer:
a. Decrease
b. Decline
c. Exit
d. No change
Explanation:
The market for gourmet chocolate is in the long-run equilibrium, and an economic downturn has caused the consumer disposable income to fall. Chocolate is a normal good, and the chocolate producers have identical cost structures.
a. This decline in the consumer income will reduce the purchasing power of the consumers. As a result, the demand will decrease. The demand curve will move to the left.
b. This leftward shift in the demand curve will cause the price to decline, As the price falls, the profits earned by the producers will decline as well.
c. In the long run, the firms operate at zero economic profits. So a decline in profits imply that the firms are operating at an economic loss. This will cause the loss incurring firms to exit the market.
d. The long run supply curve will remain the same. It is not affected by change in profits, it changes only with change in the state of technology or availability of resources.
Answer:
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Pretax income = Contribution - Fixed cost
Contribution = Pretax income + Fixed cost
= $1,824,000 + $1,444,000
= $3,268,000
Sales - Variable Cost = Contribution
Variable Cost = Sales - Contribution
= (380,000 electric screwdrivers × $20.40 each) - $3,268,000
= $7,752,000 - $3,268,000
= $4,484,000
Answer:
The amount of goodwill that Parent should report as a result of its acquisition of a Sub is $500,000
Explanation:
The calculate of the goodwill of a company at its acquisition you have to subtract the total fair market value of its assets and liabilities from the price paid.
For this case:
Price of purchase: 500,000 shares at $15 per share that is $7,500,000
Fair market value of its assets and liabilities is $7,000,000 ($6,000,000 + $1,000,000) The value of net assets reported by Sub's + $1,000,000 extra determined by parets as fair value.
$7,500,000 - $7,000,000 = $500,000
Answer:
The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.
Explanation:
optimal hedge ratio
= coefficient of correlation*(standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity/standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity)
= 0..8*(0.65/0.81)
= 0.642
Therefore, The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.