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Oduvanchick [21]
1 year ago
11

A company recently announced that it would be going public. The usual suspects, Morgan Stanley, JPMorgan Chase, and Goldman Sach

s will be the lead underwriters. The value of the company has been estimated to range from a low of $5billion to a high of $100billion, with $45billion being the most likely value. If there is a 20% chance that the price will be at the low end, a 10% chance that the price will be at the high end, and a 70% chance that the price will be in the middle, what value should the owner expect the company to price at?
Business
1 answer:
Deffense [45]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

$42.5 billion

Explanation:

the expected value formula = ∑ (valueₙ x probabilityₙ)

expected value = (low value x probability of low value) + (most likely value x probability of most likely value) + (high value x probability of high value)

= ($5 billion x 20%) + ($45 billion x 70%) + ($100 billion x 10%) = $1 billion + $31.5 billion + $10 billion = $42.5 billion

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Your project to obtain charitable donations is now 30 days into a planned 40-day project. The project is divided into three acti
adell [148]

Answer:

1. schedule variance = -$52,500

2. SPI = 0.65

3. CPI = 0.56

Explanation:

to get the solution, we calculate for BRWS and BRWP

first we calculate the budgeted revenue of the work scheduled for each activity using this formula:

<u>budgeted</u><u> </u><u>revenue</u><u> </u><u>*</u><u> </u><u>planned</u><u> </u><u>completion</u>

A = 25,000 x 100percent

= $25000

B = 150,000 x (25/30) percent

= $125000

C = 50000 x 0percent

= 0$

total = $25000+$125000+$0

= $150000

Next we calculate budgeted revenue of work performed (brwp)

<em>calculated using this formula</em>:

<u>budgeted revenue x actual </u><u>completion</u>

A = 25000 x 90percent

= 22500 dollars

B = 150000 x 50percent

= $75000

C = 50000 x 0%

= $0

total = 22500 + 75000 + 0

= $97500

<u>1</u><u>.</u><u> </u><u>schedule</u><u> variance</u><u> </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>BRWP </u><u>-</u><u> </u><u>BRWS</u>

<u>=</u><u> </u>$97500 - $150000

= -$52500

<em>we </em><em>have</em><em> a</em><em> </em><em>negative</em><em> </em><em>schedule</em><em>,</em><em> </em><em>telling</em><em> </em><em>us </em><em>that </em><em>the </em><em>project</em><em> </em><em>is </em><em>behind</em><em> </em><em>schedule</em>

<em>2</em><em>.</em><em> </em><u>schedule</u><u> </u><u>performance</u><u> </u><u>index </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>revenue</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>work </u><u>performed</u><u> </u><u>divided </u><u>by </u><u>revenue</u><u> of</u><u> work</u><u> </u><u>schedule</u>

<u>=</u><u> </u>97500/150000

= 0.65

3. <u>cost price index = revenue of work performed divided by actual revenue</u>

= 97500/175000

= 0.56

4. <u>how </u><u>the </u><u>project</u><u> </u><u>is </u><u>going</u><u>:</u>

the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.65 which is less than 1. this is to say that the project is doing better than planned revenue when we talk of revenue

4 0
1 year ago
Tryst Energy Inc. has an average age of inventory of 65 days, an average collection period of 60 days and an average payment per
zzz [600]

Answer:

The $600,000 amount is required to financing so that the cash conversion cycle can be supported

Explanation:

For computing how much financing is required, first we have to compute the cash conversion payable which is shown below:

Cash conversion cycle = Average age of inventory + Average collection period - average payment period

= 65 + 60 - 65

= 60 days

Now, we have to apply the financing formula which is shown below:

= Firm total annual outlays for operating cycle investment × cash conversion cycle ÷ total number of days in a year

= $3,650,000 × 60 days ÷ 365

= $3,650,000 × 0.16438

= $600,000

Hence, the $600,000 amount is required to financing so that the cash conversion cycle can be supported

4 0
1 year ago
A firm determines its profit by subtracting______ from _____ .
serious [3.7K]
<span>A firm determines its profit by subtracting total cost from revenue</span>
8 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
If a foreign government hires an American consulting firm to help the country's textile industry improve production operations,
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

If a foreign government hires an American consulting firm to help the country's textile industry improve production operations, the contract is commercial, and if the foreign government refuses to pay, the consulting firm may sue the government in American courts.

False

Explanation:

Any company could be sued at anywhere so far there is bridge of agreement or contract, with the analogy above such consulting American company would be sued but in the above case, a consulting American firm can not sue themselves unless someone in the company sue the American consulting firm

3 0
1 year ago
Henson company applies overhead on the basis of 120% of direct labor cost. job no. 190 is charged with $120,000 of direct materi
Marizza181 [45]
Total manufacturing costs=direct material+direct labor+manufacturing overhead

Calculate direct labor
Let direct labor be x
120%=1.2
1.2x=180000
Divide both sides by 1.2
X=180,000÷1.2
X=150,000 direct labor

Total manufacturing costs=
120,000+150,000+180,000
=450,000...answer

Hope it helps!
5 0
1 year ago
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