Total contribution margin = $3,000, standard models sold at break even=800, deluxe models sold at break even=400, superior models sold at break even=100
<u>Explanation:</u>
1.Using sales mix stated in the fact from Figure to form a package what is the total contribution margin?
total contribution margin =($150 multiply 8) plus ($200 multiply 4) plus ($1,000 multiply 1) = $3,000
2.Refer to Figure, What is the number of standard models sold at break even.
break even units =Fixed cost divide contribution margin per package
= $300,000 divide $3000 =100 package standard models sold at break even=100 package multiply 8 = 800
2.Refer to Figure, What is the number of deluxe models sold at break even.
break even units
=Fixed cost divide contribution margin per package = $300,000 divide $3000
=100 package deluxe models sold at break even = 100 package multiply 4
Answer:
$28,700
Explanation:
We know that
Ending work in process inventory = Opening work in process inventory + total manufacturing cost - cost of finished goods manufactured
where,
Total manufacturing cost = cost of direct materials used + direct labor cost + overhead cost
= $408,000 + $56,000 + $72,000
= $536,000
So, the ending work in process inventory would be
= $16,200 + $536,000 - $523,500
= $28,700
Answer:
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Explicit costs = $10,000
Here, the implicit cost is the cost of sacrificing money income from job:
= $10 per hour × 8 hours a day × 30 days
= $2,400
Revenues:
= Items produced in a day × Selling price of each × 30 days
= 50 × $10 × 30
= $15,000
Therefore,
Economic profit for the month:
= Revenues - Explicit costs - Implicit cost
= $15,000 - $10,000 - $2,400
= $2,600
Answer:
The present value of terminal value is $ 863,689.48
Explanation:
Terminal value=Cash flows at third year*(1+g)/WACC-g
cash flows at the third year is $64,000
g is the growth rate of net cash flows which is 2% in perpetuity
WACC is 8%
Terminal value=$64,000*(1+2%)/(8%-2%)
=$64000*1.02/0.06
=$ 1,088,000.00
The present value of terminal=terminal value*discount factor in year 3
discount factor in year=1/(1+8%)^3=0.793832241
Present value of terminal cash flow=1,088,000.00 *0.79383224
=$ 863,689.48
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.
