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FrozenT [24]
2 years ago
7

Joyce uses 3/10 bag of chocolate chips for each batch of cookies she makes. What is the least number of batches Joyce can make i

f she has to open a second bag of chocolate chips?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleksandr-060686 [28]2 years ago
7 0

ANSWER: one

Step-by-step explanation:

The most 6

With three bags she can make exactly 10

You might be interested in
7) CJ was painting his apartment. In 15 minutes,
igomit [66]

y = 12x represents the gallons of paint used in x hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

CJ uses 3 gallons of paint in 15 minutes,

15 minutes = 3 gallons

1 minutes = \frac{3}{15} = \frac{1}{5} \ gallons\\

1 hour = 60 minutes

Gallons of paint used in 1 hour;

1 hour = \frac{1}{5}*60=12\ gallons

CJ uses 12 gallons of paint in 1 hour.

For x hours = 12*x = 12x

Gallons of paints used = y

y = 12x represents the gallons of paint used in x hours.

Keywords: linear equation, multiplication

Learn more about multiplication at:

  • brainly.com/question/10048445
  • brainly.com/question/10177389

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
2 years ago
A scuba diver used the expression below to describe his position in relation to sea level.
Ipatiy [6.2K]
2 + (-20) + 8.....when sea level is 0.

starting on a platform 2 ft above sea level....so it is 2
dive down 20 ft....so this is below sea level...so it is -20
rise 8 ft...so it is 8

so ur answer is : 2nd answer choice
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Harmony earns a \$42{,}000$42,000dollar sign, 42, comma, 000 salary in the first year of her career. Each year, she gets a 4\%4%
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

FV(n)=42,000(1.04)^n

Step-by-step explanation:

FV=PV(1+r/n)^nt

Where

FV=future value

PV=present value

r=interest rate

n=number of periods

t=time (years)

PV=42,000

r=4%=0.04

n=1

t=n

FV(n)=p(1+r/n)^nt

=42,000(1+0.04/1)^1*n

=420000(1+0.04)^n

=42,000(1.04)^n

FV(n)=42,000(1.04)^n

7 0
2 years ago
In circle E, and are diameters. Angle BCA measures 53°. Circle E is shown. Line segments A C and B D are diameters. Lines are dr
yuradex [85]

Answer:

74

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Adult male heights have a normal probability distribution with a mean of 70 inches and a standard deviation of 4 inches. What is
NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer:

The probability that the man is greater than 74 inches is 0.1587

Step-by-step explanation:

The required probability is found by evaluating the area under the corresponding distribution curve for the corresponding values

The standard normal variate factor (Z) is given by

Z=\frac{x-\bar {X}}{\sigma }

where

\bar{x} is mean of the data

\sigma is the standard deviation of the data

Thus corresponding to x = 74 the Z factor equals

Z=\frac{74-70}{4}=1

Using the standard normal distribution table corresponding to mean of 70 and deviation of 4 the area under the curve corresponding to Z = 1 equals

0.1587

6 0
2 years ago
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