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Sladkaya [172]
2 years ago
11

On January 1 of the current year, Barton Corporation issued 10% bonds with a face value of $200,000. The bonds are sold for $191

,000. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31, and the maturity date is December 31, five years from now. Barton records straight-line amortization of the bond discount. The bond interest expense for the year ended December 31 isa. $21,800
b. $10,900
c. $18,200
d. $29,000
Business
1 answer:
Verdich [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a. $21,800

Explanation:

The discoun of issuance of the bond is amortized over the period until maturity. Total Interest expesne on a discounted bond is the sum of the coupon payment and the amortization of the discount amount.

Coupon payment = $200,000 x 10% = $20,000 per year

Discount on the bond = $200,000 - $191,000 = $9,000

Discount amotized per year = $9,000 / 5 = $1,800

Total Interest Expense = Coupon Payment + Amortization of Discount

Total Interest Expense = 20,000 + 1800 = $21,800

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On June 1, 2018, Dirty Harry Co. borrowed cash by issuing a 6-month noninterest-bearing note with a maturity value of $480,000 a
Brrunno [24]

Answer:

Ans. the carrying value of the note as of September 30, 2018 is $404,006

Explanation:

Hi, the note was issued to mature in 6 months, and 4 months had passed, therefore there are still 2 months left for the note to mature, in other words, this works just as a non-coupon bond which you price in terms of its discount rate and the time remaining for this instrument to mature.

With that in mind, what we need to do is to find the time remaining for the bond to mature, so remember that it was issued on June,1 2018, and in order to facilitate our calculations, we say: "From June 1 to June 30, there is a month..." Now our date will match its maturity, so we just count months until September 30 and we found out that the result is 4 months, it means that this note has 2 months until it matures.

The formula to use is as follows.

Value(Sep.2018)=\frac{IssuingValue}{(1+Disc.Rate)^{n} }

Where n is the months to its maturity.

Everything should look like this:

Value(Sep.2018)=\frac{480,000}{(1+0.09)^{2} }=404,006

Best of luck.

6 0
2 years ago
SI International had a FCFE of $122.1M last year and has 12.43M shares outstanding. SI's required return on equity is 11.3%, and
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

<em>The value per share = </em>$375.379

Explanation:

<em>The intrinsic value of shares is the present value of the Free cash flow to equity (FFCE) discounted at cost of equity. </em>

Total value of equity= FCFE× (1+g)/(r-g)

Total Value of equity= 122.1 × (1.07)/(0.113-0.07)= 3038.302326

The value per share = Total Value of company /Number of shares

                                 = $3038.302326 / 12.43  units

<em>                                    = </em>$244.43 per unit

<em />

7 0
2 years ago
Juice Drinks has beginning inventory of $10,000, purchases in the amount of $150,000, and ending inventory of $8,000. Juice Drin
astra-53 [7]

Answer:

$152,000

Explanation:

Given the data as shown below;

Opening inventory = $10,000

Purchases = $150,000

Ending inventory = $8,000

Therefore,

Juice drinks cost of goods sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory

= $10,000 + $150,000 - $8,000

= $152,000

8 0
2 years ago
Pollyanna Publishing, a textbook publishing firm, purchased a new machine for $80,000. This machine is expected to operate for 1
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

A.

The first year’s Depreciation Expense: $14,400

The second year’s depreciation expense: $11,520

B.

The first year’s Depreciation Expense = The second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

Explanation:

A. Under the straight-line method, useful life is 10 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 10% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total asset cost - salvage value =  $80,000-$8,000 = $72,000

Under the double-declining-balance method the 10% straight line rate is doubled to 20% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

In the first year, depreciation expense = 20% x $72,000  = $14,400

At the beginning of the second year, the Depreciable cost's book value is $72,000 -$14,400 = $57,600

In the second year, depreciation expense = 20% x $57,600  = $11,520

B.

The company uses straight-line depreciation, Depreciation Expense each year is calculated by following formula:  

Depreciation Expense = (Cost of machine − salvage value)/Useful Life = ($80,000-$8,000)/10 = $7,200

The first year’s Depreciation Expense = The second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose your opportunity cost rate is 11 percent compounded annually. (a) How much must you deposit in an account today if you w
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

a. Amount = $1653.93

b. Amount = $1835.82

Explanation:

a.

The Present Value is the deposited amount of future payments.

The payments are annuity if they are made at the end of each year.

To compute the present value of an annuity with periodic payment, we'll make use of the following formula:

M(1 - (1 + r)^- T)/ r

Where

M = Periodic Payment = $230

T = Periods = 15

r = rate = 11% = 0.11

So, Amount of Deposit = 230(1 - (1 + 0.11)^-15)/0.11

Amount = 230(1 - (1.11)^-15)/0.11

Amount = 230 ( 1 - 0.209)/0.11

Amount = 230 * 0.791/0.11

Amount = 230 * 7.191

Amount = $1653.93

b.

In this case payments are made at the beginning of each period

This means that the payments are an annuity due.

To compute the present value of an annuity due with periodic payment, we'll make use of the following formula

M((1 + r) - ( 1 + r) ^ ( 1 - T))/r

Amount = 230(( 1 + 0.11) - (1 + 0.11) ^ (1 - 15))/0.11

Amount. = 230((1.11 - 1.11^-14))/0.11

Amount = 230(1.11 - 0.232)/0.11

Amount = 230 * 0.878/0.11

Amount = 201.94/0.11

Amount = $1835.82

3 0
2 years ago
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