Answer:
It should be accepted as the cash flow is greater than minimum
Explanation:
We should determinate if he project can generate a cashflow of 151,406 after taxes to be accepted:
market x market share = sales in units
140,000 units x 8.5% = 11,900 units
sales x contribution less fixed cost = income before taxes
11,900 x 56.11 - 387,200= 280,509
after tax 280,509 x (1 - 21%) = 221,602.11
project cash flow > minimum cash flow
221,602.11 > 151,406
It should be accepted as the cash flow is greater than minimum
<span>A country's ability to meet its financial obligations is the main determinant of its "economic risk". Whether a country will be able to repay debts which it takes on, such as in the form of bond issues, is a key driver of the willingness of investors to make capital contributions to a country, and the return that they expect in exchange for assuming that risk.</span>
Answer:
a Value-Chain Analysis
Explanation:
A value-chain analysis is a model that helps to describe the full range of activities needed to create a product from the conception i.e. the procurement of raw materials, manufacturing functions, marketing and the distribution of the products which leads to an increase in production efficiency so that a company can deliver maximum value for the least possible cost.
Answer:
The total overhead variance in hours taken is 3,600 hours
The total overhead cost variance is $1,110
Explanation:
The variance is about the different between budget/ standard and actual figures.
Standard hours allowed for the work done is 22,200 hours; and the predetermined overhead rate is $5.75 per direct labor hour. So total cost budgeted for work done is $127,650 = $5.57 x 22,200 hours
The total overhead variance in hours taken = standard hours of 22,200 - actual direct labor hours of 18,600 = 3,600 hours
The total overhead cost variance = standard cost - actual cost = $127,650 - $126,540 = $1,110
Answer:
<h2>Because firms in a perfectly competitive market does not have any price making ability or market power,they are not able to engage in any price discrimination.Hence,the correct answer is the last option or True,because perfectly competitive firms have no market power.</h2>
Explanation:
In Microeconomics,perfectly competitive markets are characterized by many buyers and sellers in which the sellers and firms usually sell homogeneous or identical products.Now,as there are many firms in the market and no barriers to entry for new firms into the market,the market competition or rivalry is high and hence,no single firm has the ability to determine and manipulate the market price according to their own economic advantage because if any firm tries to do so,it will loose significant market share as most customers would move to other sellers/firms charging lower price or regular market price.Therefore,the market price is fixed in the perfectly competitive market as the firms do not have price making or market power.Consequently,they are not able to charge different prices to different customers according to their maximum willingness to pay or differences in price preferences.
