I = prt
p = 7430
r = 5%....turn to decimal = 0.05
t = 3
I = (7430)(0.05)(3)
I = 1114.50 <===
The answer is 10/36 or 27.77%
here’s the working out
Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Lets start with the red ball because it is easier. You have 1/10 chances to pick the same number that is drawn randomly. Thus your base probability is .1
Now going to the white balls, you need atleast 2 numbers picked as the numbers drawn. Let's say we pick numbers 1-3. In order to win, the numbers 1 and 2, 2 and 3, 1 and 3, or 1 2 and 3 must be drawn. You can calculate the probability for each of these cases. In the case only 2 are drawn, the probability for each is 0.075. Since there are three cases that this could happen, you multiply this probability by 3, becoming 1/4. However, there is also the chance that you get all three. The probability of this is 3/10*2/9*1/8.
.225 + .1 + 0.008333 = 33.333...% or 1/3
<span>The nearest perfect square that is less than 22 is 16, whose square root is 4.
</span><span>Add the square root from step 1 to 3/4 to get 4.75.
</span>Calculate the quantity one-half times the square of divided by the value found in step 2, or 4.75. (1/2 * (3/4)^2) <span>÷ 4.75 = 0.06.
</span>
Subtract the value found in step 3 from the value found in step 2, or 4.75.
The approximate value of <span>√22 is 4.69.</span>
<h3>
Answer: Choice A</h3>
The first line shown in choice A is
which means "the first term is -2"
The next line in choice A means "the nth term (
) is found by multiplying the prior term (
) by 8". Put another way: multiply each term by 8 to get the next term.
first term = -2
second term = 8*(first term) = 8*(-2) = -16
third term = 8*(second term) = 8*(-16) = -128
fourth term = 8*(third term) = 8*(-128) = -1024
and so on.