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1 year ago

What has the increased use of automation and less use of the work force in companies has caused a trend towards an increase in

Business

2 answers:

NNADVOKAT [17]1 year ago

5 0

Answer:

b. fixed costs and a decrease in variable costs.

Explanation:

As decrease in work force will result in the decline in the variable cost because we pay our labor on the basis of the unit produced or work done. In case of automation work will be shifted to machinery which required a major portion of fixed cost. Increase in automation will lead to Increase in Fixed cost.

murzikaleks [220]1 year ago

4 0

Answer:

B) fixed costs and a decrease in variable costs.

Explanation:

Automated robots used in factories are extremely expensive, but once they are functioning, they can replace a lot of workers and they are very cheap to keep working. Factories that once had thousands of employees now only employ a handful of maintenance and programmers that keep the robots running. even though the robots cost millions of dollars, they operating costs are extremely low, which means they are extremely efficient.

The factory's fixed costs increase due to the high cost of the robots, but the monthly variable costs (specially labor) plummet.

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Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

Peripheral Goods

Explanation:

According to my research on different business strategies and benefits, I can say that based on the information provided within the question these are examples of Peripheral Goods. These are useful physical items that have something to do with the business that is offering the product or service that you are buying.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

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1 year ago

lee company pays its employees on a graduated commission scale 6% on the first $40,000 sales 7% on sales from $40,001 to $80,000

Elina [12.6K]

Answer: c

Explanation:

Because it makes even more sense.

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2020, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory accoun

AnnZ [28]

Answer:

$2069

Explanation:

Given

Applied overhead costs of Goods sold = $59,300

Applied overhead cost of finished goods = $38,000

Overhead Balance = $97,300

Overhead Cost = $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = Overhead Balance - Overhead Cost

Overapplied Overhead = $97,300 - $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = $5,300

Allocated Amount = (Applied Overhead * Finished Goods /(Overapplied Overhead)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * $38,000) ($59,300 + $38,000)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * 38,000) (97,300)

Allocated Amount = $2069

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

When Nina tells her manager that she doesn't feel she needs to attend various training sessions at company expense or utilize su

Virty [35]

Answer:

The right answer is, False.

Explanation:

Nowadays companies seek to improve the attitudes, knowledge and skills of their employees, through training activities so that everyone works synergistically in achieving the objectives of organizations.

3 0

1 year ago

You paid $713 last year for a zero-coupon bond that promised to pay you $1,000 at the end of 5 years. Rather than hold it for th

andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

The bond today will be valued at 708.4252

Explanation:

The price for the bond will be the present value of 1,000 at the current market rate of 9%

We will use the present value of a lump sum to calculate this:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000 dollars

time 4 years

rate 9% = 9/100 = 0.09

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.09)^{4} } = PV$

PV $708.4252

This will be the expected market value for the bond.

8 0

1 year ago