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seropon [69]
2 years ago
9

Eleven years ago, Lynn Inc. purchased a warehouse for $315,000. This year, the corporation sold the warehouse to Firm D for $80,

000 cash and D’s assumption of a $225,000 mortgage. Through date of sale, Lynn deducted $92,300 straight-line depreciation on the warehouse.a. Compute Lynn’s gain recognized on sale of the warehouse.b. What is the character of this gain?c. How would your answers change if Lynn is a noncorporate business?
Business
1 answer:
steposvetlana [31]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

gain recognized on sale = $82,300

ordinary gain =  $16,460

capital gain = $65,840

gain is $82,300

Explanation:

given data

purchased a warehouse = $315,000

sold warehouse = $80,000

assumption of a mortgage =  $225,000

deducted = $92,300

solution

first we get here Actual cost of warehouse that is

Actual cost of warehouse = Purchase cost - Depreciation    ..................1

put here value and we get

Actual cost of warehouse  = $315,000 - $92,300

Actual cost of warehouse = $222,700

and  

now we gain recognized on sale that is express as

gain recognized on sale = Sale price of warehouse + mortgage amount - actual cost   ..........................2

put here value and we get

gain recognized on sale = $80,000 +$225,000 - $222,700

gain recognized on sale = $82,300

and

now we get first we get ordinary gain and we know ordinary gain is the 20% of the gain amount

as the tax rate is 20%

so ordinary gain is

ordinary gain = $82,300 × 20%

ordinary gain =  16,460

so here capital gain will be

capital gain = Gain - Ordinary gain  ...................3

put here value  

capital gain = $82,300 - $16,460

capital gain = $65,840

and

when Lynn is a non corporate business than he will have only gain part of  $82,300 because here ordinary gain and capital gain is not recognized under non corporate business

so gain is $82,300

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likoan [24]

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  • It is the principal agency that should be held responsible for the national census for a minimum of 10 years.
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7 0
2 years ago
Western Electric has 34,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $83 and a rate of return of 12.80 percent
grin007 [14]

Answer:

11.03 %

Explanation:

Cost of Capital = Cost of equity x Weight of Equity + Cost of Preferred Stock x Weight of Preferred Stock  + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt.

where,

Cost of equity =  12.80 %

Cost of Preferred Stock = 8.20 %

Cost of Debt =  8.20 x (1 - 0.40) = 4.92 %

also,

Total Market Value = 34,000 x $83 + 7,500 x $97.00 + $416,000 x 113%

                                = $2,822,000 + $727,500 + $470,080

                                = $4,019,580

Weight of Equity = $2,822,000 ÷ $4,019,580 = 0.70

Weight of Preferred Stock = $727,500 ÷ $4,019,580 = 0.18

Weight of Debt = $470,080 ÷ $4,019,580 = 0.12

therefore,

Cost of Capital = 12.80 % x 0.70 + 8.20 % x 0.18 + 4.92 % x 0.12

                         = 11.03 %

3 0
2 years ago
Harvey County Choppers, Inc. is experiencing rapid growth. The company expects dividends to grow at 25 percent per year for the
densk [106]

Answer:

The current stock price should be at $60.15.

Explanation:

We have the dividend paid next year = 1.05 x 1.25 = $1.3125.

So, the present value of the growing annuity of dividend stream in the next 7 years is calculated as:

[ 1.3125 / (12% - 25%) ] x [ 1 - [ (1+25%)/( 1+12%) ] ^7 ] = $11.68.

The present value of the dividend stream from year 8 to infinity ( growing perpetuity):

[ 1.05 x 1.25^7 x 1.07/ (12% - 7%) ] / 1.12^7 = $48.47.

The price of the stock should be equal to the sum of present value of the two dividend stream above which is 11.68 + 48.47 = $60.15.

Thus, the answer is $60.15 per share.  

3 0
2 years ago
Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $38
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the NPV of the project using the discount cash flow model:

the initial investment = $385,000 (depreciable machinery) + $20,000 spare parts + $3,100 = $408,100

depreciation expense (five year MACRS class)

  • $385,000 x 20% = $77,000
  • $385,000 x 32% = $123,200
  • $385,000 x 19.20% = $73,920
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 5.76% = $22,176

Cash flow year 1 = [($145,000 - $77,000) x (1 - 22%)] + $77,000 = $130,040

Cash flow year 2 = [($145,000 - $123,200) x (1 - 22%)] + $123,200 = $140,204

Cash flow year 3 = [($145,000 - $73,920) x (1 - 22%)] + $73,920 = $129,362

Cash flow year 4 = {[($145,000 - $44,352) x (1 - 22%)] + $44,352} + $3,100 (recovered working capital) + $45,000 (salvage value) + $4,736 (tax credit on impairment loss*) = $175,693

*since the carrying value at the end of year 4 is $66,528 and the salvage value is $45,000, an impairment loss will = $21,528. This will result in lower taxes by $21,528 x 22% = $4,736

the NPV of the project = -$408,100 + $130,040/1.09 + $140,204/1.09² + $129,362/1.09³ + $175,693/1.09⁴ = -$408,100 + $119,303 + $118,007 + $99,891 + $124,465 = $53,566

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

4 0
2 years ago
Sew ‘N More just paid an annual dividend of $1.42 a share. The firm plans to pay annual dividends of $1.45, $1.50, and $1.53 ove
andre [41]

Answer:

Stock Worth Today:  $3,71 + $10,93 = $14,64

Stock Worth Today:  Present Value (3 Next Years) + Present Value (Perpetuity)

Explanation:

We need to apply two financial methods to find the value of the shares today.

First, the Present value formula for the next 3 years, and for the rest we apply the Perpetuity formula, then to the result of Perpetuity we apply the Present Value because it's expressed in values of Year 4.

Present Value Formula : C/(1+r)^t to each cash dividends each year.

Perpetuity Formula : Dividend / r

  • PV of the perpetuity = Periodic cash inflow/ Interest rate  

Perpetuity = 1,60/ interest rate  

Perpetuity = 1,60/ 0,10  

Perpetuity = $16  

The Perpetuity it's expressed at the moment of Year 4, we need to discount the Perpetuity to the current time:

Present Value Formula : C/(1+r)^t = 16/(1,10)^4 = $10,93

  • PV of the the next 3 years dividends.

Present Value = 1,45/(1+0,1)^1 + 1,50/(1+0,1)^2 + 1,53/(1+0,1)^3  

Present Value = 1,32 + 1,24 + 1,15  

Present Value = $3,71

7 0
2 years ago
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