When he says "Denmark's a prison", Hamlet is using a metaphor. A metaphor is a word or expression that means something different from their literal meaning. This figurative language is telling us that, like a person who is in prison, Hamlet also feels as if he were trapped and watched the whole time.
Two other sentences that are using figurative language as well, are the following:
"<u>To be or not to be</u>", is a parallel structure, that is, when we are using the same pattern of words, to show that those words or ideas bear the same importance.
"<u>Despised love</u>", is an oxymoron, which is a kind of speech containing words that seem to contradict each other.
I believe the answer is c
In the poem "<em>The Second Coming</em>" written by William Yeats, the author explores Anarchy and chaotic scenarios where things fall apart and order can only be reestablished by the return of <em>Jesus Christ</em> on earth.
When the author uses the phrase "<em>The ceremony of innocence is drowned</em>" he refers to a set of circumstances of violence, brutality and horror caused by what he calls "<em>a loose blood dimmed tide</em>" which suffocates purity and freshness, describing a cataclysm; worthy of resemblance to biblical passages of events involving destruction on a catastrophic scale such as Noah’s flood, or the total and final destruction of the world, described in the book of Revelation as "<em>The Apocalypse</em>".
The poem seems to be the author's emotional release after the presumable trauma of <em>World War I</em> around that time in Europe, since it was written in 1919.
It's an evident appeal to a Christian concept in seek of spiritual refreshment as a cathartic method to purge his likely repressed emotions in the post-war environment.
Base on my research and further understanding about the said topic, I would say that every structure of a poem may have a figurative speech and also flowery words that allows the reader to feel the emotion of the said poem. I hope you are satisfied with my answer and feel free to ask for more
I believe the correct answers are:
- an Indo-European language of Germanic origin: this is definitely true as old English (as well as modern English) belongs to the Germanic group of languages, along with Scandinavian languages (Swedish, Norwegian, Danish, Icelandic), German, Yiddish, etc. And all of them are Indo-European languages
- depended on inflections to indicate gender: this statement is also true. Old English, also known as Anglo-Saxon English, used different suffixes to denote the gender of a noun. So if a noun was female, it would have a different suffix from that of male/neuter gender. This has mostly disappeared from modern English.
- depended on inflections to indicate grammatical form: this statement is also true. Old English used different suffixes to denote the form of a word, such as the tense, or possessive form, etc. This is something that modern English has kept as well, and you can see it in -ed suffix for past tense, or 's used for possessive form.
These three options are definitely correct, whereas 'similar to modern English' is definitely incorrect because they almost look nothing alike. I'm not sure about the mixture of many languages though - it had many dialects, but ultimately it was one Germanic/Viking language, so I don't think other languages influenced it a lot at the time - that came later with Middle English.
