Answer:
Beta is 1.8
Explanation:
CAPM or capital asset pricing model is used to compute expected return on stock by establishing relationship between expected returns and systematic risk (also called beta).
Given:
Return on mutual fund = 14%
Risk free rate (Rf) = 5%
Market return (Rm) = 10%
Risk premium = Rm - Rf
= 10% - 5%
= 5%
CAPM formula:
Returns = Rf + β(Rp)
14% = 5% + β(5%)
β = 9 / 5
β = 1.8
Beta of mutual fund is 1.8
Answer:
$6,000
Explanation:
First, Carey's allowable deductions repersents 'real estate loss allowance. The real estate loss allowance is an allowance or tax reduction made available to taxpayers who are also owners of rental properties in the U.S.
The specific allowance states that if the adjusted gross income of the owner of the rental property is $100,000 or less, then the taxpayer is allowed a deduction of $25,000. However, this begins to reduce as the adjusted gross income approaches $150,000 and the allowance is completely eliminated when the income exceeds $150,000
Based on this explanation, Carey's Adjusted Gross Income= $138,000, higher than $100,000 but less than $150,000
The calculation= 50% ($150,000- maximum allowable adjusted gross income- $138,000 - Carey's reported adjusted gross income)
=0.50 ($12,000)
= $6,000
Answer:
$8,000
Explanation:
Given the following:
Interest rate on notes receivable = 8%
Original principal balance = $150,000
Amount due by July 1 = $50,000
Therefore, in the June 30, 20X4 balance sheet, the original principal balance that has been outstanding will be :
$150,000 - $50000 = $100,000
Therefore, only $100,000 has been outstanding and is due for calculation in the interest on accounts receivable on June 30.
Interest rate * principal balance due at the date
8% * $100,000
0.08 * $100,000
= $8,000
Answer:
$7,986
Explanation:
To calculate the equivalent annual cost for 5 year period at an interest rate of 10% per year we need to go through some minor calculations first.
DATA
Cost in first year (A) = $10,000
Decrease in cost each year after the first year (G) = $560
Interest rate = 10%
Time period = 5 years
Solution
EAC = A - G (A/G, i, n)
EAC = $9,000 - $560(A/G, 10%, 5)
EAC = $9,000 - ($560 * 1.8101)
EAC = $9,000 - $1,013.656
EAC = $7,986
Answer:
C. A change from expensing certain costs to capitalizing these costs due to a change in the period benefited, should be handled as a change in accounting estimate.
Explanation:
The statement above describes or the other hand talks about expenditure and capitalization.
Therefore, expenditure is explained as either capitalized as a cost of the asset on the company’s balance sheet or it is expensed in the income statement of the incurred period.
Under IFRS, the following rules govern the categorization of the expenditure as an asset:
If the expenditure is expected to give economic benefits in future over several accounting periods.
If one can measure the cost reliably. Also, increases the assets on the company’s balance sheet.
Recorded on the cash flow statement as a cash outflow for investing.
