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2 years ago

Given: circle O with tangent AB mBC= 2x -16; mCD = x+40; mDE = x; mEB = 60 find the x

Mathematics

1 answer:

murzikaleks [220]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

All the given arcs cover the entire circle circumference, so their measures add up to a full 360.

(2x - 16) + (x + 40) + x + 60 = 360

4x + 84 = 360

4x = 276

x = 69

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According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, which polynomial function has exactly 8 roots?f(X) 3x4 +2xfox)- (6x -4x5-10 3x2

mina [271]

Answer:
A. (3x²-4x-5)(2x⁶-5)

Explanation:
The fundamental theorem of Algebra states that:
"A polynomial of degree 'n' will have exactly 'n' number of roots"

We know that the degree of the polynomial is given by the highest power of the polynomial.
Applying the above theorem on the given question, we can deduce that the polynomial that has exactly 8 roots is the polynomial of the 8th degree

Now, let's check the choices:
A. (3x²-4x-5)(2x⁶-5)
The term with the highest power will be (3x²)(2x⁶) = 6x⁸
Therefore, the polynomial is of 8th degree which means it has exactly 8 roots. This option is correct.

B. (3x⁴+2x)⁴
The term with the highest power will be (3x⁴)⁴ = 81x¹⁶
Therefore, the polynomial is of 16th degree which means it has exactly 16 roots. This option is incorrect.

C. (4x²-7)³
The term with the highest power will be (4x²)³ = 64x⁶
Therefore, the polynomial is of 6th degree which means that it has exactly 6 roots. This option is incorrect

D. (6x⁸-4x⁵-1)(3x²-4)
The term with the highest power will be (6x⁸)(3x²) = 18x¹⁰
Therefore, the polynomial is of 10th degree which means that it has exactly 10 roots. This option is incorrect

Hope this helps :)

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the probability of drawing two yellow marbles if the first one is NOT placed back into the bag before the second draw? T

Xelga [282]

Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question.

Ishrat

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2 years ago

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Which statement best summarizes the central idea of “Applications of Newton’s Laws”? Newton’s laws can explain the forces that o

nadya68 [22]

Answer: Newton’s laws can explain the forces that occur between objects every day.

Newton's Laws are known as the "Three Laws of Motion." They address inertia, force, and gravity. Because these are all phenomenons that occur every day, that is the correct answer.

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2 years ago

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The accompanying data are lengths (inches) of bears. Find the percentile corresponding to 65.5 in.

Jlenok [28]

Complete question is missing, so i have attached it.

Answer:

Percentile is 74th percentile

Step-by-step explanation:

All the lengths given are;

Bear Lengths 36.5 37.5 39.5 40.5 41.5 42.5 43.0 46.0 46.5 46.5 48.5 48.5 48.5 49.5 51.5 52.5 53.0 53.0 54.5 56.8 57.5 58.5 58.5 58.5 59.0 60.5 60.5 61.0 61.0 61.5 62.0 62.5 63.5 63.5 63.5 64.0 64.0 64.5 64.5 65.5 66.5 67.0 67.5 69.0 69.5 70.5 72.0 72.5 72.5 72.5 72.5 73.0 76.0 77.5

The number of lengths (inches) of bears given are 54 in number.

We are looking for the percentile corresponding to 65.5 in.

Looking at the lengths given, since they are already arranged from smallest to highest, let's locate the position of 65.5 in.

The position of 65.5 in is the 40th among 54 lengths given.

If the percentile is P, then;

P% x 54 = 40

P = (40 × 100)/54

P ≈ 74

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2 years ago

Which measure is the largest? 1.2 km, 120,600 cm, 1,220,000 mm, 120 meters

aalyn [17]

The answer would be 1,220,000mm.

You can do this if you convert all the measures into one unit. Let us convert all into km.

The first one is already in km, so we do not need to covert it.

Let's start with converting 1,220,000mm to km.

There are 1, 000,000 mm in one km.

$1,220,000X \frac{1km}{1,000,000mm} = 1.22km$

So there are 1.22km in 1,220,000mm.

Next, we have 120m. There are 1,000m in 1km.

$120mX \frac{1km}{1,000} =0.12km$

There are 0.12km in 120m

Now you can see that 1,220,000mm is the longest.

4 0

2 years ago