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Rainbow [258]
2 years ago
7

Placker Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours.

The company based its predetermined overhead rate for the current year on total fixed manufacturing overhead cost of $155,000, variable manufacturing overhead of $3.40 per machine-hour, and 50,000 machine-hours. Recently, Job A881 was completed with the following characteristics: Total machine-hours 100 Direct materials $ 645 Direct labor cost $2,300 The total job cost for Job A881 is closest to: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
riadik2000 [5.3K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Total cost= $3,595

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated fixed overehad= $155,000

Estimated variable manufacturing overhead= $3.40 per machine-hour

Estimated machine-hours= 50,000

Job A881:

Total machine-hours 100

Direct materials $645

Direct labor cost $2,300

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (155,000/50,000) + 3.4

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $6.5

Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Total cost= 645 + 2,300 + (6.5*100)

Total cost= $3,595

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Selected data taken from the accounting records of Laser Inc. for the current year ended December 31, are as follows: Balance, D
Olin [163]

Answer:

1. Cash payments for merchandise is $446,030

2.Cash payment for operating expense is $77,870

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the Cash payments for Merchandise we would have to use the following formula:

   

Cash payments for Merchandise= cost of goods sold +decrease in accounts payable-decrease in inventory

Cash payments for Merchandise=$448,500+$4,290-$6,760  

Cash payment for Merchandise=$446,030

2. In order to calculate the Cash payments for operating expenses we would have to use the following formula:

Cash payment for operating expense=operating expense - decrease in prepaid expense +decrease in Accured

Cash payment for operating expense=$78,000 -$650+$520  

Cash payment for operating expense=$77,870

5 0
1 year ago
Teall Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard mac
erastova [34]

Answer:

$4,500 U

Explanation:

Teall Corporation

Budget variance = Actual fixed overhead cost − Budgeted fixed overhead cost

Actual total fixed manufacturing overhead $ 59,500

Less Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 55,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance for the month $4,500 U

Therefore the fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance for the month is $4,500 U

4 0
2 years ago
EB17.
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

$600 unfavorable

Explanation:

The budgeted cost of producing 14,000 units at $5.50 per unit and with fixed costs of $19,400 is:

B = 14,000*5.50 + 19,400\\B= \$96,400

The variance is given by subtracting the budgeted cost by the actual cost ($97,000):

V= \$96,400 - \$97,000\\V= -\$600

Since the variance is negative, the variance is unfavorable

6 0
2 years ago
Childers Company, which uses a perpetual inventory system, has an established petty cash fund in the amount of $400. The fund wa
Sergio [31]

Answer:

A credit to Cash of $299

Explanation:

Journal Entry                     Debit    Credit

Merchandise inventory      $62

Delivery charges                 $46

Office supplies                    $30

Miscellaneous expenses    $51

Cash over and short             $100

Cash                                                   $299

Cash to be reimbursed = Minimum cash balance required - Cash balance left

Cash to be reimbursed = $500 - $201

Cash to be reimbursed = $299

7 0
2 years ago
Ronen Consulting has just realized an accounting error that has resulted in an unfunded liability of $ 398 comma 930 due in 28 y
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

Present value of Liability is $59,989

Explanation:

Money does not have the same value in future as it has today. The present value calculates the today's value of any that cash flow will be made in future.

Liability = FV = $398,930

Number of years = n = 28 years

Discount rate = r = 7%

Present value = FV / ( 1 + r )^n

Present value = $398,930 / ( 1 + 0.07 )^28

Present value = $398,930 / 6.65

Present value = $59,989.47

3 0
2 years ago
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