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Dmitry [639]
2 years ago
15

Weatherwear estimates that every unit sold and returned due to defect costs the company $200 in profits. Approximately what woul

d Weatherwear’s total profits have been in Year 5 if all units sold and returned due to defect had been eliminated?

Business
1 answer:
Elena L [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: С. $9.5 million

Explanation:

The units that were sold and later returned due to defect in Year 5 total;

= 688 + 124 + 536 + 28 + 101 + 8 + 206 + 28 + 120 + 1,050 + 30

= 2,919 units were sold and later returned

Each unit costs the company $200 in profits so;

= 2,919 * 200

= $583,800

Weatherwear made a total profit of $8.9 million in Year 5.

If the defective units had been eliminated then the loss as a result of the units would have been added to the profits as;

= 8,900,000 + 583,800

= $9,483,800

= $9.5 million

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Hawar International is a shipping firm with a current share price of $5.50 and 10 million shares outstanding. Suppose Hawar anno
Vika [28.1K]

Answer: a. $5.50

b. $6.1

c. $3,500,000

Explanation:

a. From the question, we are informed that Hawar International is a shipping firm with a current share price of $5.50 and 10 million shares outstanding and that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares.

We are informed that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares. This is a transaction and therefore, the value if the share won't be changed. So, the value for the share will still be $5.50.

b. If the only imperfection is corporate tax rate of 30%, the share price after this announcement will be:

= [30% × (20million/10million)] + $5.50

= [0.3 × 2] + $5.50

= $0.6 + $5.50

= $6.1

Therefore, the share price be after this announcement will be $6.1.

c. If the share price rises to $5.75 after this announcement, the PV of financial distress costs Hawar will incur as the result of this new debt will be:

= ($6.1 - $5.75) × 10,000,000

= $0.35 × 10,000,000

= $3,500,000

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose a competitive firm has​ cost, C​ = ​(0.002q3​) ​+ (22q)​ + 750, marginal​ cost, MC​ = 0.006q2​ + 22, and​ revenue, R​ =
aniked [119]

Answer:

 Options B and C are correct.

  • Marginal profit is negative.
  • Profit is positive.

Explanation:

At q = 150

R = 80q = 80(150) = 12,000

C = 0.002(150)3 + 22(150) + 750 = 6750 + 3300 + 750 = 10,800

R > C so first is incorrect.

MR = 80

MC = 0.006(150 x 150) + 22 = 135 + 22 = 157

MC > MR so B is correct.

Profit = TR - TC = 80(150) - 0.002(150)3 - 22(150) - 750 = 12000 - 10800 = 1200

Profit is positive.

Marginal profit = MR - MC = 80 - 157 = - 77

MR is Negative

3 0
2 years ago
Dehner Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hou
Vlad [161]

Answer:

Total cost= $6,180

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (202,100/47,000) + 2

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.3 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

<u />

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 6.3*100

Allocated MOH= 630

<u>Finally, the total cost:</u>

Total cost= 850 + 4,700 + 630

Total cost= $6,180

4 0
2 years ago
Lloyd is chronically-ill and received tax-qualified long-term care insurance benefits in 2018 amounting to $8,000 to cover a 30-
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

A) $0

Explanation:

as per IRC section 101g, if the payment exceeds the greater of per actual cost then the excess payment amount will be taxable.

total tax free payment = 360*30

                                      = $10,800

Therefore, The taxable amount is $0

4 0
2 years ago
Kristian Thalen has just joined the corporate treasury group at Electrolux of Sweden, a multinational Swedish appliance maker. E
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

See explaination

Explanation:

cost of debt, after-tax = (4.3% + 1.2%)*(1 - 26%) = 4.07%

cost of equity = 4.3% + 1.3*4% = 9.5%

market capitalization = 286130000 * 182 = 52075660000

total value of equity outstanding = market capitalization = 52075660000

Debt portion = 11532000000 / (11532000000 + 52075660000) = 0.18

Equity portion = 1 - 0.18 = 0.82

weighted average cost of capital = 0.18*4.07% + 0.82*9.5% = 8.52%

7 0
2 years ago
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