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dalvyx [7]
2 years ago
9

Assume Highline Company has just paid an annual dividend of $ 1.03. Analysts are predicting an 10.5 % per year growth rate in ea

rnings over the next five years. After​ then, Highline's earnings are expected to grow at the current industry average of 5.3 % per year. If​ Highline's equity cost of capital is 8.7 % per year and its dividend payout ratio remains​ constant, for what price does the​ dividend-discount model predict Highline stock should​ sell?
Business
1 answer:
svetlana [45]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The stock should sell for $40.04 today

Explanation:

The current price per share or the fair price can be calculated using the two stage growth model of DDM or Dividend Discount Model. The DDM values a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The price today can be calculated as follows,

P0 = D1 / (1+r) + D2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + Dn / (1+r)^n  +  [Dn * (1+g2) / (r - g2)] / (1+r)^n

Where,

  • g1 is the initial growth rate
  • g2 is the constant growth rate
  • D1 is the dividend expected for the next period calculated as D0 * (1+g1)
  • r is the required rate of return

P0 = 1.03 * (1+0.105) / (1+0.087)  +  1.03 * (1+0.105)^2 / (1+0.087)^2  +  ....  +  

1.03 * (1+0.105)^5 / (1+0.087)^5  +  

[(1.03 * (1+0.105)^5 * (1+0.053)) / (0.087 - 0.053)] / (1+0.087)^5

P0 = $40.04

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MC Qu. 112 A company is considering... A company is considering the purchase of new equipment for $105,000. The projected annual
Alina [70]

Answer:

Net Present Value =  $660.98  

Explanation:

<em>The Net present value (NPV) is the difference between the Present value (PV) of cash inflows and the PV of cash outflows. A positive NPV implies a good and profitable investment project and a negative figure implies the opposite. </em>

NPV of an investment:  

NPV = PV of Cash inflows - PV of cash outflow  

<em>PV of cash inflow = A× (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r </em>

A- annul cash inflow, r- 8%, n- 3

PV of cash inflow= 41,000× (1- 1.08^(-3))/0.08

=   105,660.98  

Initial cost = 105,000

NPV =  105,660.98  - 105,000

= $  660.98  

3 0
2 years ago
You are going to deposit $21,000 today. You will earn an annual rate of 4.1 percent for 15 years, and then earn an annual rate o
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

$71,720.

Explanation:

We can find the answer by finding the future value for the two periods (the 15 years under 4.1% interest rate, and the 18 years under 3.5% interest rate) using the future value of an investment formula:

FV = PV (1 + i)^n

Where:

  • FV = Future value
  • PV = Present value
  • i = interest rate
  • n = number of compounding periods

Now, for the first period of time, we plug the amounts into the formula:

FV = $21,000 (1 + 0.041)^15

FV = $38,369

Now, we take that result, and apply the same formula:

FV = $38,369 (1 + 0.035)^18

FV = $71,270

So, the total amount you will have in your account after 33 years is $71,720.

3 0
2 years ago
Trevor always begins the day with a strawberry milkshake (milk (x1 ) and strawberries(x2) mixed in proportion 1:5). His income i
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Going by the question that the proportion of milk and strawberry for milk shake is 1:5.

If amount of milk is to be X1 that means the quantity of strawberry (X2) will be 5×X1, i.e., X2=5X1... Equation 1

And in addition, the milk and strawberry are complementary consumables as strawberry is of no use without milk and vice versa.

Budget equation will be as follows:

P1×X1+P2×5X1=M.... Equation 2

Given M=200, P1=15 & P2=1

Putting values in Equation 2

15×X1+1×5X1=200

X1=10 & X2=50(from equation 1)

Answer a)

With change in P1 from 15 to 5

Again putting values in Equation 2

5×X1+1×5X1=200

X1=20 & X2=100.

The total change in the demand of milk will increase from 10 units to 20 units.

Answer b)

Strawberry and milk are complementary goods here for that reason there would be no effect on substitution.

Answer c)

Since there will be no effect on substitution, total effect will be equal to income effect.

7 0
2 years ago
In a company's standard costing system, direct labor-hours are used as the base for applying variable manufacturing overhead cos
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

From this information one can conclude that last period the variable overhead efficiency (quantity) variance was <u>unfavorable.</u>

Explanation:

The variable overhead efficiency variance measures the difference between the actual and budgeted hours worked with respect to standard variable overhead rate per hour.

Variable overhead efficiency variance can be calculated thus:

Actual labor hours less budgeted labor hours x Hourly rate for standard variable overhead

If the time it takes to manufacture a product and the time budgeted for it matches or performs well, the labor efficiency is favorable.

Variable overhead efficiency variance is deemed unfavorable when it takes the company more time than budgeted to produce. This also shows labor efficiency variance was unfavorable.

4 0
2 years ago
Employees earn vacation pay at the rate of one day per month. During the month of June, 10 employees qualify for one vacation da
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

B. Debit Vacation Benefits Expense $1,500; credit Vacation Benefits Payable $1,500

Explanation:

Lets consider all the other options to eliminate them from our choice

Option A: The entry provided debits the vacation benefits expenses and credits the prepaid vacation benefits. The liability for the vacation credit earned by the employees during the month needs to be recorded so this is not an adjustment of an advance vacation benefit.

Option C: The required entry has nothing to do with taxes so not relevant.

Option D: The entry is to record the liability for vacations earned by the employees so an expenses has to be recorded.

Option E: The option reduces the liability and reduces the expenses which is against the requirement of  the question

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2 years ago
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