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motikmotik
2 years ago
6

Kotrick Company has beginning inventory of units and expected sales of units. If the desired ending inventory is ​units, how man

y units should be​ produced?
Business
1 answer:
saw5 [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: $26,000

Explanation:

Ending Inventory = Beginning Inventory + Units to be produced - Sales

18,000 = 15,000 + Units to be produced - 23,000

Units to be produced = 18,000 + 23,000 - 15,000

Units to be produced = $26,000

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Carla Vista Co. had the following assets on January 1, 2017. Item Cost Purchase Date Useful Life (in years) Salvage Value Machin
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

I have no Idea ask your teacher

7 0
1 year ago
Highfill Corporation's variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours. The standard cost card for product D80D
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard direct labor hour per unit= 6.5 hours

Standard variable overhead= $6.8 per direct labor hour.

Actual production= 1,300 units

Actual direct labor hours= 8,500 hours

Actual variable overhead= $60,290

A) To calculate the variable overhead rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity

Actual rate= 60,290/8,500 hours= $7.093

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (6.8 - 7.093)*8,500= $2,490.5 unfavorable

B) To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 1,300*6.5= 8,450 hours

variable overhead efficiency variance= (8,450 - 8,500)*6.8= $340 unfavorable

3 0
2 years ago
bram johnson invests $500 at the end of each quarter for 10 years the account earns 12% interest annually what is the value of t
Alecsey [184]
I think that the answer is 24.69. i hope it helped :)
3 0
2 years ago
If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

8 0
2 years ago
Franklin Corporation is comparing two different capital structures, an all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Un
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

The price per share using MM Proposition I is $38,40

The value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans is $7,104,000

Explanation:

In order to calculate the price per share using MM Proposition I we would have to use the following formula:

share price=Debt/Difference in number of shares

share price=1,920,000/(185,000-135,000)

share price=$38,40

The price per share using MM Proposition I is $38,40

In order to calcuate the value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans we would have to calculate the following formulas:

All equity plan=share price×number of shares

All equity plan=185,000×$38,40

All equity plan=$7,104,000

Levered plan=share price×number of shares+debt

Levered plan=115,000×$20.59+$175,000

Levered plan=$7,104,000

The value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans is $7,104,000

7 0
2 years ago
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