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2 years ago

Using the exchange rate £1 = $1.33, calculate how many £ are in $6.50. Give your answer rounded to 2 dp.

Mathematics

2 answers:

juin [17]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If the exchange rate between British pounds (£) and US dollars ($) is £1 = $1.40, how much is £200 worth in dollars?

Include the $ sign in your answer.

280

$142.86

280.00

$280.00

$280

42.86

Guest1 year ago

0 0

thanks i loved this

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According to a survey by Bankrate, of adults in the United States save nothing for retirement (CNBC website). Suppose that adult

mezya [45]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

Yes the selection of 15 is a binomial experiment

$P(r = 15) = 3.2768 *10^{-11}$

$P(r = 5) = 0.1032$

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Step-by-step explanation:

considering question a

Generally for and experiment to be binomial

The trial must be independent

There must be only two outcomes for each trial

Generally given that that the 15 adults are selected randomly which mean that the trials will be independent and that desired outcome is ''ether the adult save something for retirement or the adult saves nothing for retirement ''

Then we can say that the selection of 15 adult at is a binomial experiment

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$P(r = n) = ^nC_r * p^r * q^{n-r}$

Here C stands for combination

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n is the sample size with value 15

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and q is calculated as

$q = 1 - p$

=> $q = 1 - 0.20$

=> $q = 0.80$

$P(r = 15) = ^{15}C_{15} * p^{15} * q^{15-15}$

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Considering question c

Generally the probability that exactly five of the selected adults save nothing for retirement is mathematically represented as

$P(r = 5) = ^{15} C_5 * (0.20)^5 * (0.80)^{15}$

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$P(r \ge 1 ) = 1 - P (r = 0 )$

$P(r \ge 1 ) = 1 - [ ^{15} C _ 0 * (0.20)^{0} * (0.80 )^{15}]$

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