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zlopas [31]
2 years ago
10

A toddler is allowed to dress himself on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays. For each of his shirt, pants, and shoes, he is equall

y likely to put it on correctly as incorrectly. Getting these articles of clothing on correctly are independent of each other. On the other days, the mother dresses the toddler with 100% accuracy. Given that the toddler is correctly dressed, what is the probability that today is Monday
Mathematics
1 answer:
avanturin [10]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0.0286 = 2.86% probability that today is Monday.

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional Probability

We use the conditional probability formula to solve this question. It is

P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}

In which

P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.

P(A \cap B) is the probability of both A and B happening.

P(A) is the probability of A happening.

In this question:

Event A: Dressed correctly

Event B: Monday

Probability of being dressed correctly:

100% = 1 out of 4/7(mom dresses).

(0.5)^3 = 0.125 out of 3/7(toddler dresses himself). So

P(A) = 0.125\frac{3}{7} + \frac{4}{7} = \frac{0.125*3 + 4}{7} = \frac{4.375}{7} = 0.625

Probability of being dressed correctly and being Monday:

The toddler dresses himself on Monday, so (0.5)^3 = 0.125 probability of him being dressed correctly, 1/7 probability of being Monday, so:

P(A \cap B) = 0.125\frac{1}{7} = 0.0179

What is the probability that today is Monday?

P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{0.0179}{0.625} = 0.0286

0.0286 = 2.86% probability that today is Monday.

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KATRIN_1 [288]

As the normal distribution is symmetric the mean is (36 + 42) / 2 = 39

 

p(X < 42) = 1 - 0.063 = 0.937

 

From tables Φ (1.53) = 0.9370

 

From this time:

42 is 1.53 standard deviations above the mean

42 = 39 + 1.53s

1.53s = 3

 

Standard deviation is = 1.96

5 0
2 years ago
Shelley is searching online for airline tickets. Two weeks​ ago, the cost to fly from Boston to Denver was ​$300. Now the cost i
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Answer:

The percentage increase without baggage fee=25%

The percentage increase with baggage fee=41.66%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the cost of the airline ticket two weeks ago is $300 and The present airline ticket is $375

We know that when a quantity increases from x to y then The percentage increase is equal to \frac{y-x}{x} *100

Here the percentage increase =  \frac{375-300}{300} *100=25%

Now the airline charges an extra $50 baggage fee which means teh present value of the airline ticket is $375+$50=$425

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4 0
2 years ago
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Free_Kalibri [48]
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A bag holds 11 beads. 7 are red, the rest are white. Two beads are taken at random from the bag. What is the probability that on
Flura [38]

Answer:

28/55

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of taking a red bead first and a white bead second is:

P(red, white) = (7/11) (4/10)

P(red, white) = 14/55

The probability of taking a white bead first and a red bead second is:

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So the probability that one bead of each color is taken is:

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4 0
2 years ago
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Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

(A)6

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the quadratic expression: a^2+8a+12

We factorize:

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Therefore, the missing number that will complete the factorization is 6.

3 0
2 years ago
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