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Airida [17]
2 years ago
6

What business messages are better organized directly, and which is better organized indirectly?

Business
1 answer:
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]2 years ago
7 0

Generally speaking, a business message expressing negative news (reader will react negatively) should be organized indirectly. The message should be delivered among other information and should not stand out. This is only appropriate if it is practical to deliver the message in this way (immediate action is not required). A more positive message should be prominent in the communication and expressed in a more direct way, since it is assumed that the reader will react positively. 

You might be interested in
Your uncle holds just one stock, East Coast Bank (ECB). You agree that this stock is relatively safe, but you want to demonstrat
g100num [7]

Complete question:

Assume that your uncle holds just one stock, East Coast Bank (ECB), which he thinks has very little risk.  You agree that the stock is relatively safe, but you want to demonstrate that his risk would be even lower if he were more diversified.  You obtain the following returns data for West Coast Bank (WCB).  Both banks have had less variability than most other stocks over the past 5 years.  

                   Year               ECB                WCB  

               2004             40.00%            40.00%

               2005            -10.00%            15.00%

               2006             35.00%            -5.00%

               2007             -5.00%           -10.00%

               2008             15.00%            35.00%

a. What is the expected return and risk of each stock?

b. Measured by the standard deviation of returns, by how much would your uncle's risk have been reduced if he had held a portfolio consisting of 60% in ECB and the remainder in WCB?  In other words, what is the difference between portfolio's standard deviation and weighted average of components' standard deviations? (Hint: check the example on page 11-12 on my note).

Solution:

The estimated return of the stock is the average profit.

So the average of ECB is (40-10+35-5+15)/5

=  \frac{75 percent}{5}

= 15% expected return

WCB expected return = 40+15-5-10+35  

= \frac{75 percent}{5}

= 15%

They've had the same planned return.

This is generally defined in the Greek letter Mu, (U) A weighted average may also be used to calculate portfolio volatility.

Standard deviation of ECB is \sqrt{{ sum [(x-U)^2]/5}}

so for ECB:

(40-15)^2= 25^2 =6.25%

(-10-15)^2= -35^2 = 0.1225

(35-15)^2= 20^2 = 0.04

(-5-15)^2= -20^2 = 0.04

(15-15)^2=0

now 0.0625+0.1225+0.04+0.04+0=0.265

stdev= \sqrt{(0.265/5)} = 0.23

So WCB is the same except in a different order to make things quick I'm only going to add the median again WCB=0.23

Then the 60/40 portfolio will be the "weighted average" of the returns.

portfolio returns

2004: (60%*40%)+(40%*40%) = 40%

2005: (60%*-10%)+(40%*15%) = 0%

2006: (60%*35%)+(40%*-5%) = 19%

2007: (60%*-5%)+(40%*-10%) = -7%

2008:(60%*15%)+(40%*35%) = 23%

we have an average return of (40+19-7+23)/5 = 75/5 =15%  

The estimated return of all combined stocks is a better way to do so.

we knew they both had expected returns of 15% so we can say  

(60%*15%)+(40%*15%)=15%  so the portfolio has an expected return of 15%

Now we do the standard deviation for the whole portfolio and get

(40-15)^2= 25^2 =6.25%

(0-15)^2 = - 25^2 =6.25%

(19-15)^2= 4^2 = 0.16%

(-7-15)^2 = -22^2 = -4.84%

(23-15)^2= 8^2 = 0.64%

now add them up and get 9.78%

\sqrt{(9.78%/5)} = 13.98%

Therefore, the normal portfolio variance is 13.98 per cent and the predicted portfolio return is 15 per cent.

Every stock has a standard deviation of 23 per cent and an average return of 15 per cent, meaning that the fund has the same estimated return but with less standard deviation. This ensures that the same gain is less costly. It's stronger than any of these products.

5 0
2 years ago
A property was purchased two years ago for $300,000; the investor just sold the property for $379,000. What was the percentage o
ikadub [295]

Answer:

percentage of profit is 26.3%

Explanation:

given data

purchase property cost = $300,000

time = 2 year ago

sold  property = $379,000

solution

we get here percentage of profit in relation to the cost

first we get here percentage value increase  that is

percentage value increase = \frac{379000}{300000}

percentage value increase = 1.263

percentage value increase = 126.3%

so here 1 in 1.263 represent you the original cost

so profit % = 1 - 1.263

profit % = 26.3%

3 0
2 years ago
Balance Sheet
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

a.  current ratio  = 1.98

b. average collection period = 32.85 days

c.  debt ratio = 35,56%

d. total asset turnover ratio = 1.11 times

e.  operating profit margin  = 47,50%

f.  inventory turnover ratio = 2 times

Explanation:

a.  current ratio

Current ratio  = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

                     = 3,075,000 / 1,550,000

                     = 1.98

b. average collection period.

Average collection period = Accounts Receivable / (Sales / 365)

                                            = 900,000 / (10,000,000 / 365)

                                            = 32.85 days

c.  debt ratio.

Debt ratio = Interest bearing debt / Total Assets × 100

                 = (700,000+2,500,000)/ 9,000,000 × 100

                 = 35,56%

d. total asset turnover ratio.

Total asset turnover ratio = Sales / Total Assets

                                          = 10,000,000 / 9,000,000

                                          = 1.11 times

e.  operating profit margin

Operating profit margin  = Operating Profit / Sales × 100

                                       = (4,550,000+200,000) / 10,000,000 × 100

                                       = 47,50%

f.  inventory turnover ratio

Inventory turnover ratio = Cost of Sales / Inventory

                                        = 3,000,000 / 1,500,000

                                        = 2 times

7 0
2 years ago
Shoe manufacturers are not going to buy much more leather if the price of leather falls, nor will they buy much less leather if
IgorC [24]

Answer:

A) inelastic demand

Explanation:

Demand is inelastic if a change in price has no effect on quantity demanded.

Changes in price has no effect on quantity of leather demanded. Therefore, the demand for leather is inelastic.

Direct purchasing is buying raw materials used in the production process.

Straight rebuy is purchasing similar goods from the same supplier under similar conditions.

Modified rebuy is purchasing similar goods either from a different supplier or in a different condition.

4 0
2 years ago
Compute whiz company's adjusted cash balance per books based on the following information:
Romashka [77]

Hey there!

Beginning: $4,200

Deposit in transit: not counted for ACB

Check printing charge: -$20

Note collected by bank of whiz: -$1,600

4,200 - 20 - 1,600 = 2,580

Adjusted cash balance = $2,580

Hope this helps!

6 0
2 years ago
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