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Mars2501 [29]
1 year ago
8

Mandovia is a developing country which has access to limited resources. the total national expenditure of mandovia amounts to $2

00 billion annually. however, the country only generates $150 billion from taxes annually. in this scenario, mandovia is facing:
Business
1 answer:
kondor19780726 [428]1 year ago
4 0
I would say that if Mandovia is spending $200 billion annually and only taking in $150 billion in taxes if that is its' only source of income ie the government then it would be facing bankruptcy or else financing the other $50 billion with loans from another country or institution which would mean extra interest costs. This could be withstood for awhile if it was known that renewed income would come in shortly in the form of higher say commodity prices for industries which could result in higher tax income in the near future, say. 
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Keys industries has assets of $2,100, sales of $2,960, operating costs of $2,675, and $250 of total current liabilities consisti
GalinKa [24]

<u>Calculation of Return on Total Assets:</u>

Return on Total assets can be calculated using the following formula:

Return on Total Assets = Net Income / Total Assets

We can calculate Net income as follows:

Sales $2960

Less: Operating Costs $2675

Less: Interest charges $125

Income before tax = 160

Less: Tax (160*40%)  = 64

Net Income = $96


Hence , Return on Total Assets = 96/2100 = 0.0457 =<u>4.57%</u>




5 0
1 year ago
Journalize the following transactions of Trapper Jon’s Productions. Assume 360 days in a year. If an amount box does not require
amid [387]

Answer:

June 23 Received a $48,000, 90-day, 8% note dated June 23 from Radon Express Co. on account.

  • Dr Notes receivable 48,000
  •     Cr Accounts receivable 48,000

Sept. 21 The note is dishonored by Radon Express Co.

  • Dr Accounts receivable 48,960
  •     Cr Notes receivable 48,000
  •     Cr Interest revenue 960

When a customer defaults on a note, the company is allowed to convert the note back to accounts receivable and charge any accrued interests. Depending on the client, the company can give them more time (by switching back the note into accounts receivable) or the company can write off the note and try to sell it to a collection company.

Oct. 21 Received the amount due on the dishonored note plus interest for 30 days at 10% on the total amount charged to Radon Express Co. on September 21.

  • Dr Cash 49,368
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  •     Cr Interest revenue 408
7 0
1 year ago
mith Services, Inc., was a trucking company established in 2000 and owned by Tony Smith as the sole shareholder. Smith Services,
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

Answers for related statements are given below.

Explanation:

1. Corporation

2.  Is

3.  Smith services

4.  Did

5. Was and was not

6. Was

7. Limited

8.  Their investment in the corporation

9.   Lost

lo. Might

11. Pierce the corporate veil

12.Abused and indistinguishable

13.Does not appear

14.Does not appear and does not appear

15.Is no and is no

16. Should not

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is a true statement? Question 9 options: when making decisions about saving and borrowing, people care ab
slamgirl [31]

Answer:

A falling interest rate will lead to a movement along the demand curve for loanable funds

Explanation:

A movement along the demand curve for a good or service is caused by a change in the price of the good or service.

Because the interest rate is the price of the loanable funds, a falling interest rate will cause a movement along the demand curve for loanable funds. More specifically, a falling interest rate, in other words, a lower price, will increase the demand for the loanable funds, so the movement will be upwards.

6 0
2 years ago
Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2020, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory accoun
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

$2069

Explanation:

Given

Applied overhead costs of Goods sold = $59,300

Applied overhead cost of finished goods = $38,000

Overhead Balance = $97,300

Overhead Cost = $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = Overhead Balance - Overhead Cost

Overapplied Overhead = $97,300 - $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = $5,300

Allocated Amount = (Applied Overhead * Finished Goods /(Overapplied Overhead)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * $38,000) ($59,300 + $38,000)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * 38,000) (97,300)

Allocated Amount = $2069

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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