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Ahat [919]
1 year ago
10

Do you think Bolivar’s policies in dealing with the Spanish and the Americans were fair? Why or why not?

History
2 answers:
Ghella [55]1 year ago
7 0

I do not think it's fair.

Because in order to prevent the dissolution of Great-Colombia, Bolivar deployed a more centralized government model, that is, in which the central government exerts a greater power over the other areas, taking part of the autonomy of the regional administrations (example: a country where States and municipalities have very little autonomy from the federal government, which exercises much greater control).  In order to ensure that Great-Colombia remained united, on August 27, 1828, Bolivar proclaimed himself president for life (dictator) and abolished the vice-presidency. Almost a month later, on September 25, he escaped an assassination attempt, which became known as the "seventh-day conspiracy."

Creating a dictatorship takes away various rights and freedoms from people and this is never fair.

Alex787 [66]1 year ago
5 0
He was a success in terms of the military, but a failure in terms of ideology and politics.
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The given quotation from Churchill means that no matter how strong the tyranny is, it can never overcome human crime.

<u>Explanation: </u>

The British political, military and writer, Sir Winston Leonard Spencer-Churchill was UK Prime Minister from 1940-145 when, during World War II, he led the Uk to victory.

This quote from Churchill implies no matter how strong a dictatorship is that human evil cannot be defeated and that will ultimately be undermined when the tyranny is triggered by people who want to destroy it.  

The war of any of our strength and endurance which God has given to us has never been exceeded in the dark, deplorable catalog of a human criminal act to make war towards such a monstrous tyranny.

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<em><u>Three similarities between antebellum era democrats and gilded age democrats are: </u></em>

<em>i. </em><u><em>They were appealing for party loyalty through mass rallies and parades.  </em></u>

<em>ii. </em><u><em>They were having fierce conflict with rebels on economic issues. </em></u><em> </em>

<em>iii. </em><u><em>They were favoring free trade. </em></u>

Further Explanations:  

Antebellum era and the gilded age are of the identical eon but are different from each other. Glided age refers to the era in the United States marked by the economic evolution in the Northern and the Western areas of America with rapid development of Industries and arrival of numerous immigrants while antebellum era refers to the era after the war that is marked by the nation’s expansion and economic reforms.

The commonality in the politics of both the era was that the Democratic Party was the governing party. The practices and slogans of the party were the same in both the eras. Spoil system was in practice in both the era as the system started in 1820 and persisted until implementation Pendleton act in 1883.The conflict for the authority was obviously fierce with his opposition in both the era. Lastly,the third similarity was that it sanctioned free trade in both the eras.  

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Answer Details

Grade: High school

Subject: US History

Chapter: Antebellum era

Keywords: Antebellum era, gilded age, United States, economic, evolution, Northern, Western, The Democrats,practices, slogans,Pendleton act,reforms.

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