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ki77a [65]
1 year ago
12

Part U16 is used by Mcvean Corporation to make one of its products. A total of 13,000 units of this part are produced and used e

very year. The company's Accounting Department reports the following costs of producing the part at this level of activity: Per Unit Direct materials $ 2.90 Direct labor $ 7.50 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 8.00 Supervisor's salary $ 3.40 Depreciation of special equipment $ 1.80 Allocated general overhead $ 7.00 An outside supplier has offered to make the part and sell it to the company for $29.80 each. If this offer is accepted, the supervisor's salary and all of the variable costs, including the direct labor, can be avoided. The special equipment used to make the part was purchased many years ago and has no salvage value or other use. The allocated general overhead represents fixed costs of the entire company, none of which would be avoided if the part were purchased instead of produced internally. In addition, the space used to make part U16 could be used to make more of one of the company's other products, generating an additional segment margin of $25,000 per year for that product. The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company as a result of buying part U16 from the outside supplier should be:
Business
1 answer:
ad-work [718]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

Financial disadvantage of 138,600

Explanation:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&produce&buy&Differential\\$Purchase&&-447,000&-447,000\\$Avoidable\: Cost&-283,400&0&283,400\\$Unavoidable\: Cost&-114,400&-114,400&0\\$Total Cost&-397,800&-561,400&-163,600\\$additional segment&0&25,000&25,000\\$Net  Effect&-397,800&-536,400&-138,600\\\end{array}\right]

The allocate cost and teh depreciation cost will be unavoidable, so should be considered as a cost for the purchase option

Also the inocme from teh additional segment is only considered for the purchase option

<u>The avoidable cost will be:</u>

Direct Materials

Direct Labors

Variable overhead

Supervisor

Thse cost are zero in the purchase escenario

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Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

130.43 euros

Explanation:

Since Ron willing to Pay is $150

Now we have to convert $150 in euros

As we know that

exchange rate × willing to pay in euro = Willing to pay in Dollar

i.e.

willing to pay in euro = Willing to pay in Dollar ÷ Exchange rate

= 150 ÷ 1.15

= 130.43 euros

Hence, the ron be paying in euros is 130.43

The same would be relevant

5 0
1 year ago
Helen is a U.S. citizen and a CPA who moved to London, England, three years ago to work for a British company. This year, she sp
True [87]

Answer and Explanation:

$102100 is the foreign earned income exclusion limit for 2017 , therefore Helen who is a U.S. citizen can exclude $102100 from gross income in the U.S.

7 0
1 year ago
As the winter holiday season was approaching, Margie decided to give each team a window display or an indoor display to decorate
Flura [38]

Answer:

The answer is autonomy (Option D)

Explanation:

Autonomy in human resource management refers to the level or degree of discretion and freedom which an employee is permitted to exercise when performing his/her job.  In other words, it means granting employees the freedom on how to approach work.  

A manager or superior like Margie (in the question) who gives employees autonomy simply gives minimal instruction on what needs to be achieved but allows the employees to go about the job in ways that best suit them.

7 0
1 year ago
Fill in the blanks.
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

The blank spaces are bold

Explanation:

a. The line  is called the​ population regression plane.

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8 0
1 year ago
A computer store has purchased three computers of a certain type at $500 apiece. It will sell them for $1000 apiece. The manufac
Ugo [173]

Answer:

The expected profit will be of 700 dollars

Explanation:

The expected profit will be the multiplication of the outcomes by their probability:

We have 10% chance of selling <u>zero </u>thus:

1,000(0) + 200(3-0) - 1,500 = -900

We have 20% chance of selling <u>one </u>thus:

1,000(1) + 200(3-1) - 1,500 = -100

We have 30% chance of selling <u>two </u>thus:

1,000(2) + 200(3-2) - 1,500 = 700

We have 40% chance of selling <u>all </u>thus:

1,000(3) + 200(3-3) - 1,500 = 1,500

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}weight&outcome&w.profit\\0.1&-900&-90\\0.2&-100&-20\\0.3&700&210\\0.4&1,500&600\end{array}\right]

We add each weighted profit to get the expected result:

-90 - 20 + 210 + 600 = 700

5 0
2 years ago
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