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zzz [600]
1 year ago
13

Stiller Corporation incurred fixed manufacturing costs of $12,000 during 2011. Other information for 2011 includes: The budgeted

denominator level is 2,000 units. Units produced total 1,500 units. Units sold total 1,200 units. Beginning inventory was zero. The company uses absorption costing and the fixed manufacturing cost rate is based on the budgeted denominator level. Manufacturing variances are closed to cost of goods sold. Fixed manufacturing costs expensed on the income statement (excluding adjustments for variances) total:
Business
1 answer:
DiKsa [7]1 year ago
6 0

Answer:

Cost of Goods Sold will contain 9,600 of the fixed manufacturing cost

Explanation:

actual fixed cost 12,000

Under absorption cost, the produced units will take the complete manufacturing cost

total manufacturing cost / produced units

            12,000                 /    1,500 units        = 8

Then, we multiply by the amount of units sold to know how much of the manufacturing cost were recognize during the period

1,200 x 8 = 9,600

The rest, will be capitalized into inventory.

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The Smith family adopted a child. The adoption procedure took about three months, and the family incurred various expenses. Will
Zina [86]

Yes, the Smith family will receive financial benefits for the taxable year. When you adopt a child, there are parts of the adoption process that are tax write offs for the family. Depending on the money spent, the different fee's paid and what all went into the adoption certain parts will be a tax credit they can apply and use as a deduction. Most of the time the expenses have to be at or over a percentage of your income.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A profitable company making earthmoving equipment is considering an investment of $150,000 on equipment that will have a 5 year
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

Earthmoving Equipment Company

The preferable method of depreciation based on the Present Worth is:

(a) Straight line method

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Cost of equipment = $150,000

Estimated useful life = 5 years

Salvage value = $50,000

Depreciable amount = $100,000 ($150,000 - $50,000)

Annual Depreciation:

Straight-line method = $20,000 ($100,000/5)

Double-declining-balance method rate = 40% (100%/5 * 2)

Depreciation Schedules:

a) Straight line method

Year      Cost        Depreciation      Accumulated      Net Book Value

                                Expense          Depreciation  

Year 1  $150,000     $20,000             $20,000             $130,000

Year 2 $150,000     $20,000             $40,000              $110,000

Year 3 $150,000     $20,000             $60,000              $90,000

Year 4 $150,000     $20,000             $80,000              $70,000

Year 5 $150,000     $20,000           $100,000              $50,000

b) double declining balance method

Year      Cost        Depreciation      Accumulated      Net Book Value

                                Expense          Depreciation  

Year 1  $150,000    $60,000            $60,000              $90,000

Year 2 $150,000      36,000              96,000                 54,000

Year 3 $150,000       4,000              100,000                 50,000

Year 4 $150,000

Year 5 $150,000

c) MACRS method

Year      Cost        Depreciation      Accumulated      Net Book Value

                                Expense          Depreciation  

Year 1  $150,000    $30,000             $30,000              $120,000

Year 2 $150,000      48,000                78,000                  72,000

Year 3 $150,000      28,800              106,800                  43,200

Year 4 $150,000       17,280              124,080                  25,920

Year 5 $150,000      17,280                141,360                    8,640

Year 6 $150,000       8,640               150,000                    0

Discount rate (MARR) = 10%

PW of Straight-line Depreciation Charges:

PV annual factor = 3.791

PW = $75,820 ($20,000 * 3.791)

PW of Double-declining-balance:

Year 1 = $54,540 ($60,000 * .909)

Year 2 = $29,736 ($36,000 * .826)

Year 3 = $3,004 ($4,000 * .751)

PW =    $87,280

PW of MACRS:

Year 1 = $27,200 ($30,000 * .909)

Year 2 = $39,648 ($48,000 * .826)

Year 3 = $21,629 ($28,800 * .751)

Year 4 = $11,802 ($17,280 * .683)

Year 5 = $10,731 ($17,280 * .621)

Year 6 = $4,873 ($8,640 * .564)

PW =   $115,883

8 0
1 year ago
The manager of your company's pension fund is compensated based entirely on fund performance; he earned over $1.2 million last y
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

The compensation to the fund manager is based on the performance of the pension fund. If the fund performs well and earns significant profit, then the compensation to the mangers should increase.  

If it incurs losses, then the argument for capping the compensation of funds managers will gain ground. Note that the manager is being paid according to the pay-for-performance scheme. Thus it is unjustified that his compensation is reduced when there is no significant evidence that his performance was responsible for the poor performance of the fund. The manager has earned over $1.2 million last year. Hence fixing the compensation of managers to $100,000 should be considered only when the fund has under performed drastically. Without such evidence, such capping will only demoralize them and the profitability of the company will fall.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Compute the variances in dollar amount and in percentage. (Round to the nearest whole percent.) Indicate whether the variance is
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

The dollar variance is -$100.

The percent variance is -20%.

Since the actual income is less than the budgeted income, the variance is unfavorable (U).

We calculate Dollar Variance as : Actual Amount - Budgeted Income

Dollar Variance = 400 - 500 = 100

Next, we calculate percent variance as :

Percent variance = \frac{Dollar Variance}{Budgeted Income} *100

Plugging the values in we get,

Percent Variance = \frac{-100}{500} *100

Percent Variance = -20%



6 0
2 years ago
Exotech has an inventory turn ratio of 60 with $50 million in annual sales, and an average inventory of $250,000. What is Exotec
Goryan [66]

Answer:

$15 million

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Inventory turn ratio = 60

Annual sales = $50 million

Average inventory = $250,000

Now,

we know,

Inventory turn ratio  = ( Cost of goods sold ) ÷ ( Average inventory )

thus,

60 = ( Cost of goods sold ) ÷ $250,000

or

Cost of goods sold = 60 × $250,000

or

Cost of goods sold = $15,000,000 or $15 million

8 0
1 year ago
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