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I am Lyosha [343]
2 years ago
15

Kurt, who is a divisional manager, continually brags that his division’s required return for its projects is 1 percent lower tha

n the return required for any other division of the firm. Which one of the following most likely contributes the most to the lower rate requirement for Kurt’s division?
A.Kurt tends to overestimate the projected cash inflows on his projects.
B.Kurt tends to underestimate the variable costs of his projects.
C.Kurt has the most efficiently managed division.
D.Kurt’s division is less risky than the other divisions.
E.Kurt’s projects are generally financed with debt while the other divisions’ projects are financed with equity.
Business
1 answer:
Viefleur [7K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. Kurt’s division is less risky than the other divisions.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most likely reason is that Kurt’s division is less risky than the other divisions. Just as the saying goes "the greater the risk, the greater the reward", the same goes for the opposite, the lower the risk that a division has to undertake the lower the percent for the required return.

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Answer:

  • The modified internal rate of return for PROJECT A:

b. 24.18%

  • The internal rate of return for Project B :

b. 35.27%.

Explanation:

The mean difference between the MIRR and the IRR it's that the IRR assumes that the obtained positive cash flows are reinvested at the same rate at which they were generated, while the MIRR considers that these cashflow will be reinvested at the external rate of return, this case 10%.

Project A  Y1             Y2

-$95,000  $65,000   $75,000  

24,18% MIRR  

Project B  -$120,000  

Y 1             $64,000  

Y 2            $67,000  

Y 3            $56,000  

Y 4            $45,000  

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2 years ago
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Option D

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Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct answer is D.

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Stacey and her husband David have a joint savings account that earns 3.5% interest payable continuously and has a current balanc
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Pollyanna Publishing, a textbook publishing firm, purchased a new machine for $80,000. This machine is expected to operate for 1
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

A.

The first year’s Depreciation Expense: $14,400

The second year’s depreciation expense: $11,520

B.

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Explanation:

A. Under the straight-line method, useful life is 10 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 10% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total asset cost - salvage value =  $80,000-$8,000 = $72,000

Under the double-declining-balance method the 10% straight line rate is doubled to 20% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

In the first year, depreciation expense = 20% x $72,000  = $14,400

At the beginning of the second year, the Depreciable cost's book value is $72,000 -$14,400 = $57,600

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B.

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