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FrozenT [24]
2 years ago
9

Fixed manufacturing overhead was budgeted at $200,000, and 25,000 direct labor hours were budgeted. If the fixed overhead volume

variance was $8,000 favorable and the fixed overhead spending variance was $6,000 unfavorable, fixed manufacturing overhead applied must be a.$194,000. b.$202,000. c.$208,000. d.$206,000.
Business
1 answer:
SVETLANKA909090 [29]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Fixed overhead application rate

= <u>Budgeted fixed overhead</u>

   Budgeted direct labour hours

= <u>$200,000</u>

    25,000 hours

= $8 per diect labour hour

Fixed overhead volume variance

= (Standard hours - Budgeted hours) x Fixed overhead application rate

$8,000 = (SH - 25,000) x $8

$8,000 = 8SH - 200,000

$8,000 + $200,000 = 8SH

$208,000  = 8SH

SH = $208,000/8

SH = 26,000 hours

Fixed manufacturing overhead application rate

= 26,000 hours x $8

= $208,000

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

In this case, we need to calculate the fixed overhead application rate, which is the ratio of budgeted fixed overhead to budgeted direct labour hours.

Then we will determine the standard hours from fixed overhead volume variance. Since budgeted hours and fixed overhead volume variance have been given, we need to make standard hours the subject of the formula.

Finally, we will calculate the fixed overhead applied, which is the product of fixed overhead application rate and standard hours.

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On July 1, Year 1, Yellow Rose Corp. paid $25,000 cash for a machine and paid an additional 8% sales tax. On the same date, an e
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Journal entries are given below

Explanation:

July 1, Year 1 (Yellow Rose Corp. purchased a machine)

                                            DEBIT      CREDIT

Machine                            $28,000  

Cash                                                     $28,000

Working

Cost of machine = Purchase price + Sales tax + Installation

Cost of machine =  $25,000 + $2,000 + $1,000

Cost of machine =   $28,000

Depreciation for year 1 (October to December)

                                                       DEBIT      CREDIT

Depreciation Expenses                $1,300  

Accumulated Depreciation                             $1,300

Working

Annual Depreciation expense = (Cost - salvage value) / useful life

Annual Depreciation expense = (28000 - 2000) / 5 = $5,200

Depreciation for 3 months

Depreciation = $5,200 x 3/12

Depreciation = $1300

Sale of the machine

                                                       DEBIT      CREDIT

Cash                                        $14,000  

Loss on Sale                                 $7,500  

Accumulated Depreciation         $6,500  

Machinery                                                       $28,000

Workng

Gain/Loss on sale = Sale proceed - carrying value

Gain/Loss on sale = 14,000 - 21,500

Loss on sale = $7,500

Carrying value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation

Carrying value = 28,000 - 6500 = 21500

Accumulated depreciation = $1,300 + $5,200 = $6,500

7 0
2 years ago
Golden Eagle Company prepares monthly financial statements for its bank. The November 30 and December 31 adjusted trial balances
denis23 [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

The adjusting entries are shown below:

1.  Supplies Expense A/c Dr $3,000 ($2,000 + $4,500 - $3,500)

         To Supplies A/c                           $3,000

(Being supplies purchased)

2. Insurance Expense A/c Dr $2,000

       To Prepaid Insurance A/c              $2,000

(Being prepaid insurance adjusted)

3. Salary expense A/c Dr $16,000

      To salary payable A/c               $16,000

(Being salary adjusted)

4. Unearned revenue A/c Dr   $1,500

       To Service revenue A/c                  $1,500

(Being unearned revenue adjusted)

7 0
2 years ago
Vince Lupino works for Best Supplies Company, which pays its employees time and a half for all hours worked in excess of 40 hour
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer and Explanation:

As per the given question the solution of given points is given here:-

a. Regular pay for the week = Rate of pay × Hours per week

= $12 × 40 hours

= $480.00

b. Overtime pay for the week = Rate of pay × 8 hours × 1.5 times

= $12 × 8 hours × 1.5 times

= $144.00

c. Total gross wages = (Social security withheld + Medicare tax withheld + Federal income tax withheld + Net pay)

= $38.69 + $9.05 + $54 + $522.6

= $624.00

d. Social security withheld = Total gross wages × Social security tax

= $624 × 6.2%

= $38.69

e. Medicare tax withheld = Total gross wage × Medicare tax rate

= $624 × 1.45%

= $9.05

f. Total withholding = Social security withheld + Medicare tax withheld + Federal income tax withheld

= $38.69 + $9.05 + $54

= $101.74

g. Net pay = Total gross wages - Total withholding

= $624.00 - $101.74

= $522.26

2. The Journal entry is here below:-

Wage Expense Dr, 624  

      To Social security taxes payable $38.69

      To Medicare Tax Payable $9.05

      To Federal Income Tax Payable $54

      To Wages Payable $522.26

(Being the payroll is recorded)

4 0
2 years ago
Problem 5-30 Graphing; Incremental Analysis; Operating Leverage [LO5-2, LO5-4, LO5-5, LO5-6, LO5-8][The following information ap
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Break Even Point

In Units = 2,000 units

In value = $80,000

Explanation:

Break even Point = \frac{Fixed\ Cost}{Contribution}

When we use contribution per unit, we get the break even point in units sales.

When we use the contribution margin as a percentage of sales we get break even sales in value.

Contribution per unit = $20

Contribution margin in percentage = $20/$40 = 50%

Therefore, Break even Point in units = \frac{40,000}{20} = 2,000

Break even units = 2,000

Break Even Point in value = \frac{40,000}{0.50} = 80,000

Sales to be made in value at break even = $80,000

8 0
2 years ago
Analyzing and Determining Liability Amounts
EastWind [94]

Answer:

a) $250,000

b) Zero

c) $6,100

d) $47,500

Explanation:

a) Bloomington owes $250,000 at year-end 2016 for inventory purchase.\

This relates to account payable and the amount to be reported as liability as at year-end 2016 is $250,000.

b)Bloomington agreed to purchase a $31,000 drill press in January 2017.

No liability will be recognized at year-end because the entity has no present obligation as there is no legal or constructive responsibility to pay $31,000. What occurred is just an agreement that can be altered.

c) During November and December of 2016, Bloomington sold products to a customer and warranted them against product failure for 90 days. Estimated costs of honoring this 90-day warranty during 2017 are $6,100.

The entity will recognized $6,100 as warranty payable as the entity has a present obligation as at year-end 2016 to compensate the customer.

d)Bloomington provides a profit-sharing bonus for its executive equal to 5% of reported pretax annual income. The estimated pretax income for 2016 is $950,000. Bonuses are not paid until January of the following year

The entity will report 5% of $950,000 ($47,500) as liability at year-end 2016 as the the entity has a present obligation to settle its executive.

7 0
2 years ago
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