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2 years ago

The variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

Mathematics

1 answer:

aliina [53]2 years ago

6 0

Answer: d. np(1 - p).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that $X\sim B(n, p)$ , where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

$E(x)=\mu=np$

$Var (x)=\sigma^2=np(1-p)$

where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .

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Jim's work evaluating 2 (three-fifths) cubed is shown below. 2 (three-fifths) cubed = 2 (StartFraction 3 cubed Over 5 EndFractio

Blizzard [7]

Answer:

$2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}=2(\frac{3^3}{5^3})$ and not $2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}=2(\frac{3^3}{5})$

Step-by-step explanation:

Jim's work evaluating $2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}$ is shown:

$2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}=2(\frac{3^3}{5})=2(\frac{3X3X3}{5})=2(\frac{27}{5})=\frac{54}{5}$

If you look at the Second step, the exponent is taken over only the numerator. It should have been taken over both the numerator and denominator as shown below.

$2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}=2(\frac{3^3}{5^3})$

The correct workings therefore is:

$2(\frac{3}{5}) ^{3}=2(\frac{3^3}{5^3})=2(\frac{3X3X3}{5X5X5})=2(\frac{27}{125})=\frac{54}{125}$

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Two production lines produce the same parts per week of which 100 are defective. Line 2 produces 2,000 parts per week of which 1

Vikentia [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.0833 or 8.33%

(b) 0.40 or 40%

Step-by-step explanation:

Parts line one (n1) = 1,000 parts

Defects line one (d1) = 100 parts

Parts line two (n2) = 2,000 parts

Defects line two (d2) = 150 parts

Total number of parts (n) = 3,000 parts

a. Probability of a randomly selected part being defective:

$P(d) = \frac{d_1+d_2}{n_1+n_2}=\frac{100+150}{1,000+2,000}\\P(d) =0.0833=8.33\%$

The probability is 0.0833 or 8.33%

b. Probability of a part being produced by line one, given that it is defective:

$P(1|d)=\frac{P(1\cap d)}{P(1\cap d)+P(2\cap d)}\\P(1|d)=\frac{\frac{100}{3,000} }{\frac{100}{3,000}+\frac{150}{3,000}}\\P(1|d)=0.4 = 40\%$

The probability is 0.40 or 40%.

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2 years ago

Janis was offered two different jobs when she graduated from college. She made the graph and table to show how much she would ea

REY [17]

Answer: A)

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

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2 years ago

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In the figure above, two line segments in the x-y plane form a right triangle with the x-axis. What is the area of the triangle

Juli2301 [7.4K]

A = (1/2) * b * h
The base is 10; the x-value going from 0 to 10.
The perpendicular height is 2; the y-value going from 0 to 2
A = (1/2) * 10 * 2
A = 10 units ^2

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2 years ago

What is the length of leg s of the triangle below?

allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

s²+s²=(4√2)²

2s²=32

s²=16

s=4

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2 years ago