Answer: d. np(1 - p).
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that , where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .
Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :
where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .
Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .
Penjelasan langkah demi langkah:
1)
2) √32 +3√18-2√50
= √16*2 +3√9*2-2√25*2
= 4√2 + 3(3√2)-2(5√2)
= 4√2 + 9√2-10√2
= 13√2-10√2
= 3√2
3) 1000 ⅔×64⅙
4) 3/4+√2
5) 2√3×√18
= 2√3×√9*2
= 2√3×3√2
= (2*3)(√3*√2)
= 6√6
6) 12/3+√3
= 4+√3
7) √1000—2√40
= 10 -2 (√4*10)
= 10-2(2√10)
= 10 - 4√10
8) 2- ¹+3-¹
9)
Jika pernyataannya opsional, penyebutnya adalah 1
10) 2√3×√18
= 2√3×√9*2
= 2√3×3√2
= (2*3)(√3*√2)
= 6√6
Answer:
Four raised to the one-sixth power
Step-by-step explanation:
We want to simplify:
First, we apply the fractional law of indices to each term.
We then have:
The correct option is B.