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zimovet [89]
2 years ago
9

The Didby's workforce complement will grow by 10% (rounded to the nearest person) next year. Ignoring downsizing from automating

, what would their total recruiting cost be? Assume Chester spends the same amount extra above the $1,000 recruiting base as they did last year.A. $3,342,000B. $2,785,000C.$255,000D.$306,000
Needed Complement507
Complement507
1st Shift Complement 388
2nd Shift Complement 119
Overtime% 0.0%
Turnover Rate 6.3%
New Employees 96
Separated Employees 0
Recruiting Spend $5,000
Training Hours 80
Productivity Index 123.8%
Recruiting Cost $578
Separation Cost $0
Training Cost $811
`Total HR Admin Cost 1,388
Business
1 answer:
adell [148]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D.$306,000

Explanation:

No. Of employees last year = 507

No. Of employees this year = 507*( 1 + 10%)

                                              = 558

Increase In number of employees = 558 - 507

                                                         = 51

Total recruiting spend = (5000 + 1000)*51

                                     = 306000

Therefore, Their total recruiting cost be $306000.

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The Bharu Violin Corporation has the capacity to manufacture and sell 5,000 violins each year but is currently only manufacturin
meriva

Answer:

Financial advantage  $40,000

Explanation:

The relevant variable cost will be determined as follows

Unit variable cost = 130+20 = 150.

                                                                                               $

Sales from special order ( 200 × $350)=                       70,000

Variable cost ( 200× 150)=                                            (<u>30,000 )</u>

Financial advantage                                                      <u> 40,000</u>

Note that the fixed  manufacturing and selling costs were not included in the analysis, simply because they are not relevant. In other words,  whether or not the special order is accepted these fixed  costs of would be concurred either way.

Financial advantage  $40,000

8 0
2 years ago
Crises that are caused by volatile international financial flows are in large part __________ advances in technology coupled wit
vekshin1
Crises that are caused by volatile international financial flows are in large part PAYMENT advances in technology coupled with GREATER openness in financial market. This is because, financial capital is very volatile and technological advances has enhanced this volatility. Lack of transparency and poor and corrupted governance can intensify the crises.
3 0
2 years ago
g Mason Company paid its annual property taxes of $240,000 on February 15, 20X9. Mason also anticipates that its annual repairs
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

$360,000

Explanation:

The total cost would be estimated as the expense anticipated plus the property taxes paid previously.

Now

Total Cost = $240,000 Property Taxes paid      +     $1,200,000 Property repairs anticipated

= $1,440,000

Now we will distribute the annual cost over the four quarters which mean we will divide the total annual cost by 4.

Quarterly Expenses = $1,440,000 / 4     = <u>$360,000</u>

4 0
2 years ago
Jennifer deposited $1,750 in a saving account that earns 1.9% simple interest. How much interest has Jennifer earned by the end
Sergeu [11.5K]
Simple interest formula
I=PRT
I=interest
P=principal=amount invested
R=rate in decimal
T=time in years



we are given
P=1750
R=1.9%=0.019
T=1

I=PRT
I=(1750)(0.019)(1)
I=33.25

that's how much interest

total will be $1750+interest=$1750+$33.25=$1783.25

your answer is right
8 0
2 years ago
Problem 5-30 Graphing; Incremental Analysis; Operating Leverage [LO5-2, LO5-4, LO5-5, LO5-6, LO5-8][The following information ap
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Break Even Point

In Units = 2,000 units

In value = $80,000

Explanation:

Break even Point = \frac{Fixed\ Cost}{Contribution}

When we use contribution per unit, we get the break even point in units sales.

When we use the contribution margin as a percentage of sales we get break even sales in value.

Contribution per unit = $20

Contribution margin in percentage = $20/$40 = 50%

Therefore, Break even Point in units = \frac{40,000}{20} = 2,000

Break even units = 2,000

Break Even Point in value = \frac{40,000}{0.50} = 80,000

Sales to be made in value at break even = $80,000

8 0
2 years ago
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