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qwelly [4]
2 years ago
8

Operational inefficiencies occur because accounts unique to many concurrent transactions need to be updated in real time.

Business
1 answer:
IrinaK [193]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

This statement is False

Explanation:

Operational inefficiencies do not occur because accounts unique to many concurrent transactions need to be updated in real time. There are many reasons for operational inefficiencies occur as a result of factors such as improper planning, poor scheduling, poor supervision and quality control, and other factors.

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Opera Estate Girls' School is considering increasing its tuition to raise revenue. If the school believes that raising tuition w
ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer: (A) inelastic

Explanation: In inelastic demand it states that by increasing the cost price it will create a proportionality in the total revenue ,that is revenue will also increase.In this case the demand of the buyer does not change, only the cost changes and the consumer will keep on buying the goods even after change in price.

Opera Estate Girls' School is also using this technique to increase the revenue,by increasing the tuition.Thus the correct option is option (A).

6 0
2 years ago
A delivery service is buying 600 tires for its fleet of vehicles. One supplier offers to supply the tires for $ 80 per​ tire, pa
nignag [31]

Answer:

$4,372.71

Explanation:

Here for reaching the difference in PV between the first and the second offer first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-

Step 1

Total payment due = Per tire × Bought tires

= $80 × 600

= $48,000

Step 2

Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year = 1 ÷ (1 + Rate of interest)^Number of years

= 1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^1

= 1 ÷ (1 + 0.084)^1

= 1 ÷ 1.084

= 0.92251

Step 3

First offer

Present value = Total payment due × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year

= $48,000 × 0.92251

= $44,280.48

Step 4

Second offer

One year payment = Bought tires × Per tire

= 600 × $45

= $27,000

Step 5

Present value = One year payment × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year

= 27,000 × 0.92251

= $24,907.77

Step 6

Total present value = Present value of second offer + Tires cost

= $24,907.77 + $15,000

= $39,907.77

Here we can see that first offer is higher than second offer

So,

The difference between the first and the second offer = First offer - Second offer

= $44,280.48 - $39,907.77

= $4,372.71

7 0
2 years ago
True or False: A small number of institutional investors are often able and motivated to bring direct shareholder pressure on a
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer: True

Explanation:

The agency problem is when there is a conflict of interest between the management of a company and the stockholders that exists in the company.

In order to help reduce the potential agency conflicts that at occur during the course of a business, a few of the institutional investors often bring in the pressure of the direct shareholder on the management of a firm. They believe by involving the shareholders, the management will try not to have any differences with the shareholders and thereby reducing agency problem.

3 0
1 year ago
What will you use for banca/boat to move​
Serggg [28]

Answer:

a paddle

Explanation:

Using a "paddle" is very important in order to move/propel a boat. Paddling creates a force which goes against the water. This force is faced by an <u>opposite force</u> that is<em> equal </em>and that which<em> allows the boat to move forward</em>.

So as you push the water asides, the boat accelerates. Such technique is deemed efficient when using the boat. Not following the proper technique will not move the boat.

5 0
1 year ago
Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $38
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the NPV of the project using the discount cash flow model:

the initial investment = $385,000 (depreciable machinery) + $20,000 spare parts + $3,100 = $408,100

depreciation expense (five year MACRS class)

  • $385,000 x 20% = $77,000
  • $385,000 x 32% = $123,200
  • $385,000 x 19.20% = $73,920
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 5.76% = $22,176

Cash flow year 1 = [($145,000 - $77,000) x (1 - 22%)] + $77,000 = $130,040

Cash flow year 2 = [($145,000 - $123,200) x (1 - 22%)] + $123,200 = $140,204

Cash flow year 3 = [($145,000 - $73,920) x (1 - 22%)] + $73,920 = $129,362

Cash flow year 4 = {[($145,000 - $44,352) x (1 - 22%)] + $44,352} + $3,100 (recovered working capital) + $45,000 (salvage value) + $4,736 (tax credit on impairment loss*) = $175,693

*since the carrying value at the end of year 4 is $66,528 and the salvage value is $45,000, an impairment loss will = $21,528. This will result in lower taxes by $21,528 x 22% = $4,736

the NPV of the project = -$408,100 + $130,040/1.09 + $140,204/1.09² + $129,362/1.09³ + $175,693/1.09⁴ = -$408,100 + $119,303 + $118,007 + $99,891 + $124,465 = $53,566

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

4 0
2 years ago
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