Answer:
$6,900 to preference shareholders
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of dividends paid to preferred and common shareholders in Year 2 is shown below:
The Preference dividend is
= 8,050 shares × $10 × 5%
= $4,025
And, since the preference dividend is cumulative plus the in year 1 there is no dividend paid and in year 2 the dividend amount given is $6,900
But the total value is
= $4,025 + $4,025
= $8,050
So the total amount i.e $6,900 is paid to preferred shareholders only
Answer:
Exclusive distribution; Selective distribution; Intensive distribution
Explanation:
Exclusive distribution refers to the phenomenon where only certain retailers are given the opportunity to carry the product in their retailer shops. For example as in the above case, only one store is exclusively chosen.
Selective distribution is that retailers are carefully selected to engage in the product of selling. For example only a few stores are engaged with in the above question.
Intensive distribution is when all kind of retailers are given the opportunity to keep the products in their shops. For example the last phase described in the question where all sorts of retailers are engaged in selling activity.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The GAAP established that when the benefits of obtaining accounting information are lower than the costs of providing that information, the information should not be provided.
For example, sometimes there are very small differences in certain accounts that don't allow a balance sheet to be balanced. If the accounting error is very small, e.g. just a few hundred dollars, then it is not reasonable to have a whole audit team check all the financial statements again to determine what caused the error. An adjusting entry could be made to close the account balances.
Imagine you are an auditor that must check the physical inventory of a factory and some boxes containing supplies are misplaced. It might take you a whole day to count again all the supplies and materials, but is it worth it? If the supplies were really expensive, probably yes, but if they were cheap components, then probably no.
Answer:
a. Decrease
b. Decline
c. Exit
d. No change
Explanation:
The market for gourmet chocolate is in the long-run equilibrium, and an economic downturn has caused the consumer disposable income to fall. Chocolate is a normal good, and the chocolate producers have identical cost structures.
a. This decline in the consumer income will reduce the purchasing power of the consumers. As a result, the demand will decrease. The demand curve will move to the left.
b. This leftward shift in the demand curve will cause the price to decline, As the price falls, the profits earned by the producers will decline as well.
c. In the long run, the firms operate at zero economic profits. So a decline in profits imply that the firms are operating at an economic loss. This will cause the loss incurring firms to exit the market.
d. The long run supply curve will remain the same. It is not affected by change in profits, it changes only with change in the state of technology or availability of resources.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
100% complete for conversion cost the units that are complete.
Units that produced during the period:
= Units sold + Units of finished Ending - Beginning units of Finished
= 300,000 + 60,000 - 75,000
= 285,000 units
And work in process at ending is 24,000 units but for conversion costs is 75% only.
For conversion Equivalent units:
= 75% of Ending Work in process + Units that produced during the period
= 75% × 24,000 + 285,000
= 18,000+285,000
= 303,000 units
