Answer: A. the 99 principle
Explanation:
This strategy, often called "charm pricing," involves using pricing that ends in "9" and "99."
With charm pricing, the left digit is reduced from a round number by one cent. We come across this technique every time we make purchases but don’t pay attention. For example, your brain processes $3.00 and $2.99 as different values: To your brain $2.99 is $2.00, which is cheaper than $3.00.
How is this technique effective? It all boils down to how a brand converts numerical values. In 2005, Thomas and Morwitz conducted research they called "the left-digit effect in price cognition." They explained that, “Nine-ending prices will be perceived to be smaller than a price one cent higher if the left-most digit changes to a lower level (e.g., $3.00 to $2.99), but not if the left-most digit remains unchanged (e.g., $3.60 to $3.59).”
Answer:
Financial and non-financial information for internal decision makers.
Explanation:
Managerial accounting is related to the information that is used for the management of the organization and its information is not widely used for external users. It is almost used by the internal decision makers. The information mostly relates to the effective running of its operations and control mechanism implications.
Answer:
32
Explanation:
First bounce = 13 / 14 × 10 = 130 /14
using geometric progression where the common ratio = 13/14, the first bound = 130/14
ar^n-1 < 1
substitute the values into the equation
130 /14 × 13/14^(n-1) < 1
(13/14)^n-1 < 1÷ (130/14)
(13/14)^n-1 < 14 / 130
take log of both side
log (13 /14)^n-1 < log ( 14/130)
n-1 log (13 /14) < log ( 14/130)
since log (13/14) negative
n-1 > (log( 14/130)) ÷ ( log (13/14)
n - 1 > 30.07
n > 30.07 + 1 > 31.07
The 32 bounce will the first less than 1 foot
Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the fair return for each company is shown below:
Fair Return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium
= 4.8 + 1.6 × 5.9
= 14.24%
Now
Everything $5 is
= 4.8 + 1 × 5.9
= 10.7%
Hence, the same should be considered
Answer:
The present value of terminal value is $ 863,689.48
Explanation:
Terminal value=Cash flows at third year*(1+g)/WACC-g
cash flows at the third year is $64,000
g is the growth rate of net cash flows which is 2% in perpetuity
WACC is 8%
Terminal value=$64,000*(1+2%)/(8%-2%)
=$64000*1.02/0.06
=$ 1,088,000.00
The present value of terminal=terminal value*discount factor in year 3
discount factor in year=1/(1+8%)^3=0.793832241
Present value of terminal cash flow=1,088,000.00 *0.79383224
=$ 863,689.48
