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aleksley [76]
2 years ago
9

Bayest Manufacturing Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead

to jobs. Last year, the Corporation worked 60,500 actual direct labor-hours and incurred $532,000 of actual manufacturing overhead cost. The Corporation had estimated that it would work 61,800 direct labor-hours during the year and incur $451,140 of manufacturing overhead cost.
Required:
1. The Corporation's manufacturing overhead cost for the year was _________. (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Makovka662 [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The Corporation's manufacturing overhead cost for the year was $543,840

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Last year, the Corporation worked 60,500 actual direct labor-hours and incurred $532,000 of actual manufacturing overhead cost.

The Corporation had estimated that it would work 61,800 direct labor-hours.

First, we need to calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 532,000/60,500= $8.80 per direct labor hour.

Now, we can allocate overhead based on actual direct labor hours:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH=  8.8*61,800= $543,840

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A company issued 5-year, 7% bonds with a par value of $500,000. The market rate when the bonds were issued was 6.5%. The company
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

The correct answer is $17,000.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Bonds percent = 7%

Par value of bonds = $500,000

Market rate = 6.5%

Cash received = $505,000

So, we can calculate the amount of recorded interest for semiannual interest period by using following formula:

First we calculate the premium on bonds,

So, Premium on bonds = Cash received - Par value of bonds

= $505,000 - $500,000

= $5,000

So, straight line amortization = Premium on bonds ÷ years

= $5,000 ÷ 5

= $1,000

So, Amount of interest expense for first semiannual is as follows:

Amount of interest = ( Par value of bonds × Bonds percent ) ÷ 2 - (straight line amortization ÷ 2)

= ( $500,000 × 7% ) ÷ 2 - ( $1,000 ÷ 2 )

=  $17,500 - $500

= $17,000.

4 0
1 year ago
The concepts of flexibility and real options are closely related to the importance of history and ________ described as potentia
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": path dependence.

Explanation:

Path dependency refers to the stage in which a company does not engage new ventures because it is too familiar with its current processes. Besides, the entity has the belief that continuing with the historical product is has been offering is more cost-effective than engaging in the production of a new good.  

<em>The competitive advantage of the institution remains the same during the whole time which is a weakness because the market of the firm could change but the firm does not implement any measure to keep the pace of the market fluctuations.</em>

5 0
2 years ago
Chiller Company has credit sales of $5.60 million for year 2013. Chiller estimates that 1.32% of the credit sales will not be co
dsp73

Answer:

$59,045.80

Explanation:

The following information was missing:

Accounts Receivable total $1,565,170

Assuming the company uses the percent of accounts receivable method, what is the amount that Chiller will enter as the Bad Debt Expense in the December 31 adjusting journal entry?  

total uncollectible debt = $1,565,170 x 4% = $62,606.80

since the account balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts is $3,561 (credit), the adjusting entry should be:

December 31, 2013, bad debt expense

Dr Bad debt expense (= $62,606.80 - $3,561) 59,045.80

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 59,045.80

7 0
2 years ago
The spot USD /GBP rate is 1.5711. The1 year t-bill rate in the US is .19%. The 1 year rate in the UK is 0.39%.
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Spot USD/GBP rate = 1.5711

(a) 1 year USD/GBP forward rate:

= [Spot rate × (1 + Domestic currency interest rate)] ÷ (1 + foreign currency interest rate)

= [1.5711 × (1+0.19%)] ÷ (1 + 0.39%)

= 1.56797, which means the USD will be at a forward premium

b) The observed 1 year forward rate is 1.60 which differs from the ideal forward rate.

This means an arbitrage opportunity exists here.

c) I would sell GBP forward for 1 year @ 1.60.

This means that I will receive USD 1.60 for every 1 GBP I sell instead of  1.56797 that is the ideal deal.

This is how I would take advantage of the arbitrage opportunity.

8 0
1 year ago
Assume your values conflict with what you are being asked to do. Under the Giving Voice to Values methodology which of the follo
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

Reflect on the objections that might be raised to your intended expressed views

Explanation:

Professor Mary Gentile developed the giving voice to values (GVV) approach to values driven business leadership.

It is a different approach because it doesn't focus on telling people what is right or wrong, instead it encourages individuals to put into practice their own values and ask themselves "What should I say or do if I was to act on my values?"

4 0
2 years ago
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