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pashok25 [27]
2 years ago
15

AC variant of the gene ACTN3 which inhibits fast-twitch muscles and seems to be less prevalent in sprinters has been studied. A

separate study1 indicated ethnic differences: Approximately 20% of a sample of Caucasians, approximately 25% of a sample of Asians, and approximately 1% of a sample of Africans had the gene variant. One variable is whether or not the gene variant is present and the other is which of the three ethnic groups the individual belongs to.
Business
1 answer:
ale4655 [162]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Category variable: Caucasians, Asians, Africans

Quantitative variable: 20%, 25%, 1%.

Explanation: The are two variables in these study. They are categorical variable and quantitative variable.

Categorical variables are variable that helps classify a given population eg race, hair colour, skin colour. Most of the time are not numerical, so we can't multiply, add or subtract them. As given in this assignment the Caucasians, Asians and Africans are category variables.

Quantitative variables are those that numerical and they reflect count, percentages(20%, 25%, 1%) and can be added, subtracted, or multiplied. The percentage of the ethnic group is an example of quantitative variable.

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You and the other shoe store owners decide to fix your shoe prices at $60 a pair in order to maximize your profits. This is call
igomit [66]
Is called collusion

It's actually price collusion to be precise ( not to be mistaken for the crime collusion)

Often time, to attract customers, sellers will offer a lower price than their competitor. Though it may attract more customer, it will lower their profit.

In price collusion, all sellers is guaranteed to have same product price and profit margin, creating a perfect competition market for that product
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How much would Roderick have after 6 years if he has $500 now and leaves it invested at 5.5% with annual compounding?a. $591.09b
Dimas [21]

Answer:

Roderick will get $689.421 after 6 years

So option (d) is correct

Explanation:

We have given that Roderick invested $500 at a rate for 6 years

So principle amount P = $500

Rate of interest r = 5.5 %

Time n = 6 years

We have to find total amount which Roderick get after 6 years

We know that total amount is given by

A=P(1+\frac{r}{100})^n

So total amount A=500(1+\frac{5.5}{100})^6=$689.421

So Roderick will get $689.421 after 6 years

So option (d) is correct

4 0
2 years ago
Hettenhouse Company's perpetual preferred stock sells for $102.50 per share, and it pays a $9.50 annual dividend. If the company
solniwko [45]

Answer:

The company's cost of preferred stock for use in calculating the WACC is 9.65%

Explanation:

For computing the cost of preferred stock, the following formula should be used which is shown below

= Annual dividend based on preferred stock ÷ (Price per share × Flotation cost)

where,

Flotation cost = 1- rate

                      = 1- 4% = 0.96

= $9.50 ÷ ($102.50 × 0.96)

= $9.50 ÷ $98.4

= 9.65%

The flotation cost should be deducted because it is a one time expense. Thus, it would be minus from price per share.

Hence, the company's cost of preferred stock for use in calculating the WACC is 9.65%

5 0
2 years ago
Here is the income statement for Larkspur, Inc.
adoni [48]

Answer:

a. The Earnings per share is $3.87

b. The Price-earnings ratio is 3.87 times

c. The Payout ratio is 12.21%

d. The Times interest earned is 10.32

Explanation:

a. The Earnings per share would be calculated as follows:

Earnings per share = (Net income – Preferred stock dividend)/Average number of common shares outstanding

We need to use the formula of the Weighted Average number of common shares outstanding to calculate the Preferred stock dividend.

Therefore, Weighted Average number of common shares outstanding = (Number of common shares outstanding in the beginning + Number of common shares outstanding in the end)/2

= (27,600 + 36,700)/2

= 32,150

Preferred stock dividend = $6,700

Therefore, Earnings per share= (131,100 – 6,700)/32,150

= 124,400/42,150

= $3.87

b. The Price-earnings ratio would be calculated as follows:

Price - earning ratio = Market price per share / Earning per share

= $15 / $3.87 = 3.87 times

c. The Payout ratio would be calculated as follows:

Payout ratio = (Total cash dividends - Preferred stock dividends) / Net income

= ($22,700 - $6,700) / $131,000 = 12.21 %

d. Times interest earned would be calculated as follows:

Times interest earned = (Net income + Interest expense + Tax expense)/Interest expense

= (131,100 + 16,700 + 24,600)/16,700

= 10.32 times

5 0
2 years ago
Trust Company applies overhead based on direct labor hours. At the beginning of the year, Trust estimates overhead to be $700,00
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

$100,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Estimated overhead = $700,000

Estimated machine hours = 200,000

Estimated Direct labor hours = 35,000

Direct labor hours for February = 5,000

Now,

The Predetermined Overhead Rate is calculated as

= ( Estimated Overhead Cost ) ÷ ( Estimated Direct Labor hour )

or

Predetermined Overhead Rate = $700,000 ÷ 35,000

or

Predetermined Overhead Rate = 20 per direct labor hour

Therefore,

The amount of overhead applied for February

= Predetermined Overhead Rate × Direct labor hours for February

= 5,000 × $20

= $100,000

6 0
2 years ago
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