Answer:
-11.8%
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
so in this particular case that one year later there are 29 years to maturity so we have:
so as we have a higher rate the investment has the next return:
Answer:
Price variance will be $4512.5 ( Unfavorable )
Explanation:
We have given standard material cost per yard = $2
Actual material cost per yard = $2.10
Standard yards per unit = 4.5
And actual yards per unit = 4.75
Units of production = 9500
Total number of actual quantity used = 9500×4.75 = 45125
So direct material price variance = ( standard price - actual price ) × actual quantity used = ( $2 - $2.1 ) × 45125 = -$4512.5
So price variance will be $4512.5 ( Unfavorable )
The contract that carries the least risk for suppliers is CPPC. In this type of contract the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance cost and pre-determined percentage based on total cost. The full meaning of CPPC is Cost Plus Percentage of Cost.
Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
Answer:
A. Dr. Office Supplies, $80; Dr. Merchandise inventory, $160; Dr. Miscellaneous expenses, $20; Dr. Cash over and short, $8; Cr. Petty cash, $268.
Explanation:
$80 for office supplies, $160 for merchandise inventory, and $20 for miscellaneous expenses are all expense accounts which need to be debited for settlement. Cash Shortage account is debited by $8 to record the cash shortage effect. The total of all these account will be credited in cash account.
