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kow [346]
2 years ago
14

Joe Kwo recognizes that the cloud offers both opportunities and risks. How would a move to the cloud make it easier and/or more

profitable for Fintech to provide large volumes of selected data to its clients?
Business
1 answer:
White raven [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: The movement to the cloud would make it simple for Fintech to give large volumes of selected data to the firm's clients

Explanation:

Cloud computing is the storing and accessing of programs and data over the internet instead of using the computer's hard drive.

The movement to the cloud would make it simple for Fintech to give large volumes of selected data to the firm's clients because the clients will get helpful insight from their data by using cloud.

Another benefit is that Fintech could rent a service rather than making huge up-front investments in software and hardware. This would save Fintech some funds and make the firm more profitable.

You might be interested in
Sematech is a producer of computer chips. To gain an advantage over other computer chip makers, Sematech focuses on reducing its
makkiz [27]

Answer: A) cost-leadership business strategy

Explanation:

Cost leadership business strategy is a

  • strategy of getting a competitive advantage by having the lowest cost of operation in the entire industry.
  • makes a reasonable profit on each sale because you've reduced costs.

Here, To gain an advantage over other computer chip makers, Sematech focuses on <u>reducing its costs below all of its competitors</u> .

where as product differentiation is a technique use to differentiate a product from similar offerings on the market.

So, Sematech is pursuing a<u> cost-leadership business strategy</u>.

So, correct option is (A).

8 0
2 years ago
Consider the following information from the records of Bennington Corporation. The company uses the weighted-average method. Bri
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

$3,735

Explanation:

The computation of the total cost that will be included in the numerator of that calculation is shown below:

= Beginning work in process + cost added during the period

= $350 + $3,385

= $3,735

Basically, we added the beginning work in process and the cost added during the period

The same amount is shown on the numerator side while calculating the cost per equivalent unit

3 0
2 years ago
The fact that one department may be labor intensive while another department is machine intensive explains in part why multiple
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Overhead is the total of indirect cost that is involved in the production of a good. An overhead could be made up of a budgeted cost or actual cost. Overhead is appropriate when it does not exceed 35% of the total revenue.

Because a large company could produce different goods, those goods undergo different process and as result of that, require different costs of production.

For this reason, departmental overhead rates are calculated to ensure that every part of the company has its own production cost and expenses set aside rather than having a general or single company overhead rate which could favor some departments and not favor some other departments.

Cheers.

4 0
2 years ago
Ultra Co. uses a periodic inventory system. The following are inventory transactions for the month of January: 1/1 Beginning inv
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

$830,000

Explanation:

Ultra Co.'s inventory for January:

Date               Number of units   Unit balance      Unit cost     Total cost   

January 1             20,000                20,000               $13         $260,000       

January 20          30,000                50,000               $15         $710,000          

January 23          40,000                90,000               $17        $1,390,000      

<u>January 31          (50,000)                                       ($16.60)    ($830,000) </u>

Ending inventory                             40,000                              $560,000

Using the last-in, first-out (LIFO) method, the COGS = (40,000 units x $17 per unit) + (10,000 units x $15 per unit) = $680,000 + $150,000 = $830,000                                          

5 0
2 years ago
Warner Company's year-end unadjusted trial balance shows accounts receivable of $99,000, allowance for doubtful accounts of $600
dsp73

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the uncollectible is shown below:

On December 31

Bad debt expense $800

        To Allowance for doubtful debts $800

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Sales × estimated percentage - credit balance of doubtful accounts

= $280,000 × 0.5% - $600

= $1,400 - $600

= $800

5 0
2 years ago
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