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jolli1 [7]
2 years ago
12

A country is closed. It has no government sector, and its aggregate price levels and interest rates are fixed. Furthermore, the

marginal propensity to consume is constant and the country's consumption function is as follows: C = 200 + 0.75YD, where YD is disposable income and C is consumption. Assume that planned investment equals 75. What is the income–expenditure equilibrium for this country?
Business
1 answer:
lutik1710 [3]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The country has closed economy; it means there is no other trading relation with, outside countries. Export imports do not affect the economy of the country, and here is no government interference as mentioned in the question. This is a self sufficient country, its demand fulfilled from inside of the country. So its aggregate price levels and interest rate are fixed. MPC or the marginal propensity to consume indicates whether there is an increase in disposable income or increase in consumption. Here consumption increases equal to the increase in the income.

MPC = ΔC /ΔY which is constant here.

The increase in income in this country is mostly permanent and increases in a fix period of time and proportionately.

C= 200 +0.75 YD (YD is disposable income), Y=75, GDP =$900

The economy achieves it’s equilibrium level when supplies meets demand or the GDP is equals to it’s total expenditure. MPC is a fraction between 0 and 1 , MPC means a change in consumption brings the change in YD . here the MPC is equals to MPS which means the change in saving bring by the change in disposable income. All income here saved or consumed. So the change in income equals to the change in consumption or saving.

MPC+ MPS = 1

So the average propensity to consume is proportionate to income which is spend on consumption. APC= C/ YD. And the average proportionate to save is equals to income saved APS= S/YD . so here APC +APS = 1. The increase in production or price leads to the increase in the total value of output, that is the equilibrium condition.

Explanation:

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4 0
2 years ago
Columbia Gas Company’s (CG) current capital structure is 35% debt and 65% equity. This year CG has earnings after tax of $5.31 m
Reil [10]

Answer:

Current dividend per share paid (Do)

= <u>Total dividend </u>

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Current market price = $31

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Ke = Do<u>(1 + g)</u>  + g

               Po

Ke = $1.60<u>(1 + 0.08)</u> + 0.08

                     $31

Ke = 0.1357 = 13.57%

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WACC = 8.82 + 2.10

WACC = 10.9%

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

In this case, we need to calculate cost of equity. The cost of debt has been given, which is the interest rate on long-term borrowing (10%). Since the debt proportion in the capital structure is 35% and equity proportion is 65%, it implies that the value of the firm is 100%.  Then, WACC is the aggregate of cost of each stock and the proportion of each stock in the capital structure.

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Explanation:

hope this helps have a great day

7 0
2 years ago
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Scilla [17]

Answer:

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