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Brums [2.3K]
2 years ago
15

Lake Corporation is considering the elimination of one of its segments. The segment incurs the following fixed costs. If the seg

ment is eliminated, the building it uses will be sold. Advertising expense $ 140,000 Supervisory salaries 300,000 Allocation of companywide facility-level costs 130,000 Original cost of building 220,000 Book value of building 100,000 Market value of building 160,000 Maintenance costs on equipment 112,000 Real estate taxes on building 12,000 Required Determine the amount of avoidable cost associated with the segment.
Business
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the amount of avoidable cost associated with the segment is $754,000

Explanation:

The cost associated with the segment to be eliminated including:

- Advertising expense $140,000  

- Supervisory salaries  $300,000  

- Allocation of companywide facility-level costs  $130,000  

- The loss for unsold building (*): $60,000

- Maintenance costs on equipment  $112,000

- Real estate taxes on building  $12,000

The total cost is $754,000

(*) The earning from sold building (book value) = Market value of building $160,000 - Book value of building  $100,000 =  $60,000

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On March 1, Roxanne acquires a house for $160,000. She pays $20,000 down and borrows the remaining $140,000 by obtaining a 15-ye
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

a)$12,800.00

B)$10,439

Explanation:

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4 0
2 years ago
Kamin Company's mixing department had a beginning inventory of 4,000 units which had accumulated conversion costs of $55,000. Du
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

The cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs in the mixing department is $ 14.19

Explanation:

<em>Step 1 Calculate the Number of Units Completed</em>

Hint: Units input in process must equal units out of the process

Therefore Units Completed = 4,000 units+8,000 units - 2,500 units

                                              = 9,500 units

<em>Step 2 Calculate the total conversion cost in the process for the period</em>

Hint : Conversion costs in Opening Work In Progress + Conversion Costs Started during the Process

Therefore:

Opening Work In Progress         $55,000

Add Started during the Process $92,000

Total Conversion Costs              $149,000

<em>Step 3 Calculate total Equivalent Units related to Conversion Costs</em>

Completed Units - 100%               9,500

Closing Work in Progress - 40%   1,000

Total                                              10,500

<em>Step 4 The cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs in the mixing department</em>

cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs= total conversion cost/ total Equivalent Units

                                                                             = $149,000/ 10,500

                                                                             = $ 14.19

6 0
1 year ago
Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
2 years ago
_____ means the extent to which the idea is viable and realistic, and the extent to which you are aware of internal and external
Ostrovityanka [42]
Flexibility is the word you’re looking for.
4 0
1 year ago
Kieran owns and operates his own bike shop. In the past week, he received two offers: one to work for a competitor for $50,000 p
icang [17]

Answer:

C. $4000

Explanation:

Given that

Total opportunity cost = salary plus interest forgone, that is 50,000 + 6% of 100,000

= 50,000 + 6000 = 56,000.

Total revenue received = 60,000

Recall that

Economic profits = Revenue - (implicit + explicit cost)

And that

Implicit cost = opportunity cost = 56,000

Explicit cost = 0 (from the question, revenue covered it)

Thus

Economic profit = 60000 - 56000

= $4000

5 0
2 years ago
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