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Alex73 [517]
2 years ago
6

Mazie Supply Co. uses the percent of accounts receivable method. On December 31, it has outstanding accounts receivable of $127,

500, and it estimates that 5% will be uncollectible.Prepare the year-end adjusting entry to record bad debts expense under the assumption that the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has:(a) a $2,168 credit balance before the adjustment.(b) a $638 debit balance before the adjustment.
Business
1 answer:
Zepler [3.9K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Journal entries

(a)

Dr. Bad Debt Expense                         $4,207

Cr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $4,207

(b)

Dr. Bad Debt Expense                         $5,737

Cr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,737

Explanation:

Bad debt Expense will be calculated using the percentage of debt loss. The expense will be calculated using the account receivable balance.

Closing Value of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be as follow

Closing Balance = $127,500 x 5% = $6,375

(a)

As Allowance for Doubtful Accounts already have balance of $2,168, we need to adjust the remainder to make the closing balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $6,375 at the year end.

Adjustment Value = $6,375 - $2,168 = $4,207

(b)

As Allowance for Doubtful Accounts already have balance of $638, we need to adjust the remainder to make the closing balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $6,375 at the year end.

Adjustment Value = $6,375 - $638 = $5,737

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Kasravi Co. had net income for 2011 of $300,000. The average number of shares outstanding for the period was 200,000 shares. The
yuradex [85]

Answer:

$1.49 per share

Explanation:

The calculation of diluted earnings per share is given below:-

Diluted shares outstanding= $200,000 + 12,000 × ($36 - $30) ÷ 36

= $200,000 + 12,000 × 6 ÷ 36

= $200,000 + 2,000

= $202,000

Diluted earnings per share = Net income ÷ Diluted shares outstanding

= $300,000 ÷ $202,000

= $1.49 per share

Therefore for computing the diluted earnings per share we simply divide the net income by diluted shares outstanding.

5 0
2 years ago
Lisa is choosing between three alternatives: a) working at her job that pays 60 dollars; b) writing a term paper which she value
choli [55]

Answer: $80

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.

If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.

The opportunity cost of writing a term paper is $80 that she values by going out with a friend and it is the higher cost alternative.

5 0
2 years ago
Skylar Company issued $50,000,000 of its 10% bonds at par on January 1, 2019. On December 31, 2019, the bonds were trading on th
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

500,000

explanation of the answers

by using the formula of simple interest

which is principal x rate x time divided by 100.

Ans=50,000,000 x 10 x 1 then ➗ by 100

which Ans=500,000

5 0
2 years ago
The following information is taken from French Corporation's financial statements:
defon

Answer and Explanation:

The preparation of the cash flows statement is presented below:

Cash flow from operating activities

Net income                                                                    $78,300

Adjustments in net income

Add: Amortization of patents                     $5,000

Add: Depreciation expense                       $19,000

Less: Increase in prepaid expense           ($700)

($7,500 - $6,800)

Less: Increase in accounts receivable    ($20,600)

($102,000 - $80,000) - ($4,500 - $3,100)

Decrease in Inventory                                $15,000

($160,000 - $175,000)

Increase in accounts payable                     $6,000

($90,000 - $84,000)

Decrease in accrued liabilities                    ($9,000)       $14,700

($54,000 - $63,000)

Cash flow from operating activities                               $93,000

Cash flow from Investing activities

Sales of patents                                            10,000  

($20,000 - $35,000) - $5,000)

Land purchased                                           ($40,000 )

($100,000 - $60,000)

Building purchased                                      ($50,000)

($294,000 - $244,000)

Cash flow from Investing activities                                ($80,000)

Cash flow from Financing activities

Bonds purchased                                         $65,000

($125,000 - $60,000)

Common stock    

Additional paid in capital

Dividend paid                                                 ($35,000)

Treasury stock                                                ($7,000)

($15,000 - $8,000)

Net Cash flow from Financing activities                       $23,000

Net Cash flow                                                                    $36,000

($93,000 - $80,000 + $23,000)

Add Beginning cash and cash equivalent                        $27,000

Ending cash and cash equivalent                                   $63,000

($36,000 + $27,000)

Therefore, we represent the negative value is cash outflow while the positive value is cash inflow.

5 0
2 years ago
Lowlife Company defaulted on a $250,000 loan that was due on December 31, 2018. The bank has agreed to allow Lowlife to repay th
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

Explanation:

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250,000 = Annuity amount*3.16987

Annuity amount = $78,868

2. Present value = Annuity amount * PVA (n=5;i=8%)

250,000 = Annuity amount* 3.99271

Annuity amount = $62,614

3. i = 10%

Annual payments = $51,351

250,000 = 51,351 *X

X = 4.86845

When looking at the table of present value of an ordinary annuity, PVA of 4.86845 and i=10%, ⇒ n = 7 payments

4.

Payments = 104,087

n = 3

250,000 = 104,087*X

X = 2.40184

When looking at the table of present value of an ordinary annuity, PVA of 2.40184 and n=3, ⇒ i = 12%

3 0
2 years ago
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