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BARSIC [14]
1 year ago
5

FCOJ, Inc., a prominent consumer products firm, is debating whether or not to convert its all-equity capital structure to one th

at is 35 percent debt. Currently, there are 6,900 shares outstanding and the price per share is $59. EBIT is expected to remain at $26,220 per year forever. The interest rate on new debt is 10 percent, and there are no taxes.
Required:

(a) Melanie, a shareholder of the firm, owns 180 shares of stock. What is her cash flow under the current capital structure, assuming the firm has a dividend payout rate of 100 percent? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places (e.g., 32.16).)

(b) What will Melanie's cash flow be under the proposed capital structure of the firm? Assume that she keeps all 180 of her shares. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places (e.g., 32.16).)

(c) Suppose FCOJ does convert, but Melanie prefers the current all-equity capital structure. Show how she could unlever her shares of stock to recreate the original capital structure.
Business
1 answer:
Strike441 [17]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

a. $684

b. $480.6

c. 63 shares

Explanation:

a. The calculation of cash flow under the current capital structure is given below:-

Earning per share = Net income ÷ Shares

= $26,220 ÷ 6,900

= $3.8 per share

Cash flow = Earning per share × Stock shares

=$3.8 × 180 shares

= $684

b. The calculation of cash flow be under the proposed capital structure is given below:-

Value = $59 × 6,900

= $407,100

Under the capital structure suggested the company would collect new debt in the amount of:

Debt = 0.35 × $4071,00

= $142,485

Which means the amount of the repurchased shares will be:-

Shares repurchased = $142,485 ÷ $59

= $2,415

The Company will have to make an interest payment on the new debt under the new capital structure. The net income with the interest payment will be:-

Net income = $26,220 - 0.10 × $142,485

=$11,971.5

This means that the EPS will come under the new capital structure

Earning per share = $11,971.5 ÷ 4,485 shares

= $2.67 per share

Since all profits are paid out as dividends, the shareholder receives:-

Shareholder cash flow = Earning per share × Stock shares

= $2.67 × 180 shares

= $480.6

c. The shareholder would sell 35% of their shareholdings

= Shares × Debt percentage

= 180 × 35%

= 63 shares

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The ________ theory states that when an aspect of the market makes a transaction (e.g. exporting a product or service) less effi
uysha [10]

Answer:

It is the theory of Market Imperfections

Explanation:

Market imperfections theory is said to be when a trade theory is brought about from international markets where perfect competition does not exist. It occurs when at least, one of the assumptions for perfect competition is violated and this results to what we call an imperfect market.

5 0
1 year ago
Hawar International is a shipping firm with a current share price of $5.50 and 10 million shares outstanding. Suppose Hawar anno
Vika [28.1K]

Answer: a. $5.50

b. $6.1

c. $3,500,000

Explanation:

a. From the question, we are informed that Hawar International is a shipping firm with a current share price of $5.50 and 10 million shares outstanding and that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares.

We are informed that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares. This is a transaction and therefore, the value if the share won't be changed. So, the value for the share will still be $5.50.

b. If the only imperfection is corporate tax rate of 30%, the share price after this announcement will be:

= [30% × (20million/10million)] + $5.50

= [0.3 × 2] + $5.50

= $0.6 + $5.50

= $6.1

Therefore, the share price be after this announcement will be $6.1.

c. If the share price rises to $5.75 after this announcement, the PV of financial distress costs Hawar will incur as the result of this new debt will be:

= ($6.1 - $5.75) × 10,000,000

= $0.35 × 10,000,000

= $3,500,000

3 0
1 year ago
Which of the accompanying boxplots likely has the data with the larger standard​ deviation? why?
Paraphin [41]

The answer is Boxplot II.  The standard deviation for the data associated with Boxplot II will likely have a larger standard deviation. Boxplot II has a greater spread than Boxplot​ I, as measured by the interquartile​ range, which is  related directly to the standard deviation of a data set.


7 0
2 years ago
Marco has noticed that as older adults purchase tablets, they do not know much about how to use them and are frequently aggravat
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Invisible Hand Concept

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario Marco's experience is an example of the Invisible Hand Concept. This concept describes the social benefits of an individual's actions. Such is Marco's experience in since he created the business in order to solve a problem, which he managed to accomplish and by doing so helped older adults with their problem and created job opportunities for various other individuals.

7 0
1 year ago
To sum up international trade theory, we can say that the primary reason for trade is
muminat

Answer:

The primary reason for trade is for the economic development of a country.

Explanation:

Trade makes a significant and necessary contribution to the economy and the country's development particularly in underdeveloped countries. The rapid progress of underdeveloped countries in the Industrial field is due to their exports. In most countries, such would represent a significant share of their gross domestic product (GDP).

6 0
1 year ago
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