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RideAnS [48]
2 years ago
12

Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $38

5,000 is estimated to result in $145,000 in annual pretax cost savings. The press falls in the ve-year MACRS class, and it will have a salvage value of $45,000 at the end of the project. The press also requires an initial investment in spare parts inventory of $20,000, along with an additional $3,100 in inventory at the end of each succeeding project year. At the end of the project all working capital is recovered.
If the shop's tax rate is 22% and its discount rate is 9%, should the company buy and install the machine press?
Business
1 answer:
KATRIN_1 [288]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the NPV of the project using the discount cash flow model:

the initial investment = $385,000 (depreciable machinery) + $20,000 spare parts + $3,100 = $408,100

depreciation expense (five year MACRS class)

  • $385,000 x 20% = $77,000
  • $385,000 x 32% = $123,200
  • $385,000 x 19.20% = $73,920
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 5.76% = $22,176

Cash flow year 1 = [($145,000 - $77,000) x (1 - 22%)] + $77,000 = $130,040

Cash flow year 2 = [($145,000 - $123,200) x (1 - 22%)] + $123,200 = $140,204

Cash flow year 3 = [($145,000 - $73,920) x (1 - 22%)] + $73,920 = $129,362

Cash flow year 4 = {[($145,000 - $44,352) x (1 - 22%)] + $44,352} + $3,100 (recovered working capital) + $45,000 (salvage value) + $4,736 (tax credit on impairment loss*) = $175,693

*since the carrying value at the end of year 4 is $66,528 and the salvage value is $45,000, an impairment loss will = $21,528. This will result in lower taxes by $21,528 x 22% = $4,736

the NPV of the project = -$408,100 + $130,040/1.09 + $140,204/1.09² + $129,362/1.09³ + $175,693/1.09⁴ = -$408,100 + $119,303 + $118,007 + $99,891 + $124,465 = $53,566

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

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BG, Inc. reported the following information related to their manufacturing costs: Direct Labor $200,000; Direct Materials $ 150,
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

$450,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Direct Labor = $200,000;

Direct Materials = $150,000;

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $250,000

Therefore, the total amount of conversion cost is the sum total of direct labor cost and manufacturing overhead cost.

Total amount of BG, Inc's conversion costs:

= Direct Labor cost + Manufacturing Overhead Costs

= $200,000 + $250,000

= $450,000

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2 years ago
Norred Corporation has provided the following information: Cost per Unit Direct materials Direct labor Variable manufacturing ov
mariarad [96]

Answer:

$134,300

Explanation:

Total indirect manufacturing cost = (Unit Produced * Variable manufactured overhead) + Fixed manufacturing overhead

= (8,000 * 1.60) + 121,500

=12,800 + 121,150

=$134,300

Hencc, the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost is $134,300

4 0
2 years ago
Branding is ________. A) all about creating unanimity between products B) the process of performing market research and selling
zysi [14]

Answer: Endowing products and services with the power of a brand

Explanation:

Branding means to attach a unique brand name to a range of products and services. The brand name is unique for that particular range of products and can easily be used to identify the products. A brand name is not transferable and therefore cannot be used by more than one business at a time.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Global Tek plans on increasing its annual dividend by 15 percent a year for the next four years and then decreasing the growth r
ad-work [718]

Answer:

A) $1.82

Explanation:

the dividends discount model is used to determine the value of stock given the distributed dividends and the required rate of return:

current dividend $0.20 per stock

dividends year 1 =  $0.23 per stock

dividends year 2 =  $0.2645 per stock

dividends year 3 =  $0.3042 per stock

dividends year 4 =  $0.35 per stock

after year 4, we need to calculate the growing perpetuity = dividend / (return rate - growth rate) = $0.35 / (17.4% - 2.5%) = $0.35 / 14.9% = $2.35

now we must find the present value of the cash flows:

PV = $0.23/1.174 + $0.2645/1.174² + $0.3042/1.174³ + $0.35/1.174⁴ + $2.35/1.174⁵ = $0.1959 + $0.1919 + $0.188 + $0.1842 + $1.0537 = $1.82

6 0
2 years ago
Kindzi Co. has preferred stock outstanding that is expected to pay an annual dividend of $4.74 every year in perpetuity. If the
olasank [31]

Answer:

The price of the preferred stock today is $103.27

Explanation:

The preferred stock pays a constant dividend after equal intervals of time and has an indefinite maturity. Thus, a preferred stock is just like a perpetuity. The value or price of a perpetuity can be calculated using the following formula.

The price or a perpetuity:

P = Cash Flow / r

As the cash flow in this case is dividends so we will use dividends in place of cash flow and divide by the required rate of return.

P = 4.74 / 0.0459

P = $103.267 rounded off to $103.27

3 0
2 years ago
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