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arlik [135]
2 years ago
10

Some construction company has bought a product for $200,000 with a life of three years, and a salvage value of $10,000. Tabulate

depreciation and book value using MACRS, Double Declining Balance and straight-line methods. Which method gives the company the largest depreciation after two years?
Business
1 answer:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The method that gives the company the largest depreciation after two years is MACRS.

Explanation:

According to given data Under MACS depreciation would be provided for 4 years and the salvage value of the asset would be reduced to zero .

Year  depreciation rate Deprecation          Book value at the end of the year

1 33.33%                66660 (33.33 % of 200000)        133340

2 44.45%                88900   (44.45 % of 200000) 44440

3 14.81%               29620   (14.81 % of 200000)        14820

4 7.41%               14820   (7.41 % of 200000)           0

Straight line method

The amount of depreciation remains same for three years. The depreciation amount is calculated as

=Original cost- Salvage value / life

= 200000-10000 /3

= 63333.3 $

Year Depreciation Book value at the end of the year

1         63333.33          136666.7

2         63333.33          73333.34

3         63333.33          10000.01

Double declining balance method

Under this method the depreciation is charged at double the rate of straight line method .

Depreciation rate under SLM = 100% / 3 = 33.33 %

DDB method rate = 2* 33.33% = 66.66%

Year  Book value at the beginning     Depreciation Book value at the end

1 200000                            133320 (66.66% of 200000) 66680

2 66680                          44448.89 (66.66% of 66680) 22231.11

3 22231.11                       14819.26 (66.66% of 22231.11) 7411.853

The largest depreciation is given by MACRS method after two years which is 88900

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Bernie Madoff invites you to invest $1,000 in his fund now and be guaranteed at least $1,500 in 4 years. What is the effective r
Nady [450]

Answer: 10.67%

Explanation:

Mr Madoff is offering to grow the current value of $1,000 to a future value of $1,500 in 4 years.

This is a future value problem.

1,500 = 1,000 * ( 1 + interest) ^ 4 years

( 1 + interest) ^ 4 = 1,500/1,000

( 1 + interest) = 4√(1,500/1,000)

1 + interest = 1.1066819197

Interest = 1.1066819197 - 1

= 10.67%

8 0
2 years ago
Your automatic payment option pays bills of $23.17, $55.67, $2,345.15, $575.25 and $1.15. How much was the mean payment?
ollegr [7]

Answer:

$600.078

Explanation:

the mean is also the average which is the total sum divide by 5

0 0
2 years ago
Franklin Corporation is comparing two different capital structures, an all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Un
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

The price per share using MM Proposition I is $38,40

The value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans is $7,104,000

Explanation:

In order to calculate the price per share using MM Proposition I we would have to use the following formula:

share price=Debt/Difference in number of shares

share price=1,920,000/(185,000-135,000)

share price=$38,40

The price per share using MM Proposition I is $38,40

In order to calcuate the value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans we would have to calculate the following formulas:

All equity plan=share price×number of shares

All equity plan=185,000×$38,40

All equity plan=$7,104,000

Levered plan=share price×number of shares+debt

Levered plan=115,000×$20.59+$175,000

Levered plan=$7,104,000

The value of the firm under each of the two proposed plans is $7,104,000

7 0
2 years ago
BTR Co. has 9% annual coupon bonds that are callable and have 18 years left until maturity. The bonds have a par value of $1,000
Marina CMI [18]

Answer: the yield to maturity and yield to call on BTR Co.'s bonds are:

YTM = 0.07507 (7.507%)

YTC = 0.06977 (6.977%)

Explanation:

Using yield to maturity formula below;

YTM = C + (fv - pv)/n ÷ (fv+pv) /2

C = coupon rate ; 9% of par value

9% of $1000

= 9/100 × 1000 = $90

fv = face value/par value = $1,000

pv = price value/market price = $1,160.35

n = number of years to maturity = 18

YTM = 90 + (1000 - 1160.35)/18 ÷ (1000+1160.35)/2

YTM = 90 + (-160.35)/18 ÷ (2160.35)/2

YTM = 90 + (-8.90833333)

÷ 1080.175

YTM = 81.0916667 ÷ 1080.175

YTM = 0.07507

= 7.507% (converted to percentage)

To calculate the yield to call, let s make use of the yield to call (YTC) formula below;

YTC = C + (cp - mp)/n ÷ (cp + mp)/2

C= coupon rate = $90

cp = call price = $1,060

mp = market price/price value = $1,160.35

n = number of years to call = 8

YTC = 90 + (1060-1160.35)/8 ÷ (1060+1160.35)/2

YTC = 90 + (-100.35)/8 ÷ (2220.35)/2

YTC = 90 - 12.54375 ÷ 1110.175

YTC = 77.45625 ÷ 1110.175

YTC = 0.06977

= 6.977% in percentage

5 0
2 years ago
you are planning to open a sandwich shop. you begin to think about the four functions of business—production, marketing, managem
Katarina [22]

Answer:

Explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
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