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riadik2000 [5.3K]
2 years ago
15

During the year, the Senbet Discount Tire Company had gross sales of $865,000. The firm’s cost of goods sold and selling expense

s were $455,000 and $210,000, respectively. The company also had notes payable of $680,000. These notes carried an interest rate of 4 percent. Depreciation was $105,000. The tax rate was 21 percent.
1. What was the company’s net income?2. What was the company’s operating cash flow?
Business
1 answer:
Svetllana [295]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:Net Income =  $68,730  ; Operating cash flow=$181,730

Explanation:

Gross sales                        $865,000

Less:

Cost of good sold               $455,000

 selling Expenses                 $210,000

Total                                     $200,000

Interest on notes  $200,00 X 4% = 8,000

Depreciation                         $105,000

EBT                                          $87,000

 (  $865,000-    $455,000-    $210,000- $8,000 - $105,000  )          

less tax at  21%                             $18,270

(87,000 x 0.21)

Net Income                                 $68,730 

(87,000 - 18,270)

b) Operating cash flow = Net income + depreciation + interest

                                $68,730 + $105,000 +   $8,000     =$181,730

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KengaRu [80]

Answer:

Cost of equity = 11.20%, Value of Equity = $39.25

Explanation:

a. Cost of equity = Rf + B(Rm-Rf)

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Cost of equity = 11.20%

b. P/E ratio = 20

Market Price / EPS = 20

Market Price = EPS * 20

-->P1 = $2.17 * 20 = $43.40

DPS1= $0.24

Value of Equity = P1/Cost of Equity + DPS1/Cost of equity

Value of Equity = $43.40/1.1120 + $0.24/1.1120

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6 0
2 years ago
An arm loan has a 4.00% start rate, and it is time for the first adjustment to be made. it has a periodic cap of 1% and a lifeti
Lena [83]

The rate after its first adjustment is 5%. The ARM adjustment would be controlled by the periodic cap, because the "true rate" or "fully-indexed rate" is 6.00% (1%+5%). Because the periodic cap prevents the start rate from moving any more than 2% at any given adjustment, the first move can only go as high as 5.00%.

5 0
2 years ago
Retirement Investment Advisors, Inc., has just offered you an annual interest rate of 4.1 percent until you retire in 45 years.
grigory [225]

Answer:

If you wait one year, in 45 years you will have $16,624.04 more than investing today.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Option 1:

Initial investment= $11,500

Number of years= 45

Interest rate= 4.1%

Option 2:

Initial investment= $11,500

Number of years= 44

Interest rate= 4.7%

To calculate the future value for both options, we need to use the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

<u>Option 1:</u>

FV= 11,500*(1.041^45)= $70,142.41

<u>Option 2:</u>

FV= 11,500*(1.047^44)

FV= $86,766.45

If you wait one year, in 45 years you will have $16,624.04 more than investing today.

7 0
2 years ago
Computing Depreciation and Accounting for a Change of Estimate Lambert Company acquired machinery costing $110,000 on January 2,
lesya692 [45]

Answer: please see answers in explanation column

Explanation:

a) Under straight-line method,

 Depreciation expense =(Cost - residual value) ÷ No of years =

= ($110,000 - $15,000) ÷ 6 years = $15,833  which refers to the yearly depreciation expense.

Therefore,  the yearly depreciation expense of $15,833 will be applied to the Years 2019, 2020 and 2021.

Total depreciation for all the three years equals  

 $15,833 x  3 years = $47,499.

(b) The double-declining method

which is  2 x  Straight - Line Depreciation Percentage x Book value

 Straight - Line Depreciation Percentage

100% ÷ 6 years = 16.67%,

 Therefore, Year 2019= 2 x  16.67% x  $110,000 = $36,663

Year 2020=2 x  16.67% x  $73,337 ($110,000 - $36,663) = $24,443

Year 2021=2 x  16.67% x $48,894 ($73,337 - $24,443) = $16,296

The total of the three years ie 2019 to 2021  =$77,402

(c) Given that in 2021 which is  after 2 years, the revised estimated useful life becomes 7 years and the residual value is $10,000

Depreciation Using  the straight-line method becomes  

Depreciation expense =(Cost - residual value) ÷ No of years

But Net Book Value, which is the cost  at the end of 2019  

$110,000 - $15,833  x  2 years = $78,334

Therefore, Depreciation expense= ($78,334 - $10,000) ÷ 7 years = $9,762  

Also,

Using double-declining method,

Straight - Line Depreciation Percentage = 100% ÷ 7 years = 14.29%,

Year 2021,

2 x 14.29% x $48,894 ($73,337 - $24,443) = $13,969

6 0
1 year ago
White Company has two departments, Cutting and Finishing. The company uses a job-order costing system and computes a predetermin
const2013 [10]

Question not complete

Direct Labour Cost is missing

Direct Labor Cost ----- $50,000.00 $270,000.00

Answer:

a.

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $12.2 per labour hour

b. Total Manufacturing Cost = $644

c. Yes

Explanation:

a. Compute the predetermined overhead rate to be used in each department.

Given

Cutting Department

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $264,000

Machine Hours = 48,000

Finishing Department

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $366,000

Direct Labour Cost = $270,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $264,000/48,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $366,000/$270,000

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 1.36

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 136% direct labour cost

b.

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Given

Machine hours = 80 machine hours

Overhead Rate = $5.5 per machine hours ------ Calculated

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Given

Direct Labour Cost = 150

Overhead Rate = 136% labour cost ------ Calculated

Overhead Applied (Cutting Department) = 80 * 5.5

Overhead Applied = 440

Overhead Applied (Finishing Department) = 136% * 150

Overhead Applied = $204

Total Overhead Applied = $440 + $204

Total = $644

c. Yes

If they use a plantwide rate based on direct labor cost and if the jobs has longer machine hours and small amount of labor cost they will be charged less overhead cost.

6 0
2 years ago
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