Answer:
a. 19,048
b. 2.1
c. $21
d. Before $2
After $2.1
e. Explanation of tax implication is below
Explanation:
a. Number of shares = Dividend per share × Number of shares outstanding ÷ cost per share
= 1 × 400,000 ÷ $21
= 19,048
b. Earning per share after repurchase = earnings ÷ (shares before-shares outstanding)
= $800,000 ÷ (400,000-19,048)
= 2.1
c. Market Price = Earning per share Price × Earning
= 2.1 × 10
= $21
d. Earning per share before = Earnings ÷ Before shares
= $800,000 ÷ 400,000
= $2
Earning per share after repurchase = $2.1
After share repurchase the earning per share has increased.
e) Price increased 21 dollars in share repurchased. The price remain constant in dividend payout the amount but additional 1 dollar in dividend the investors gains. If dividend is lesser than tax on capital gain then it will become drawback over collect dividend and vice versa.
Answer:
The explanation is given as follows.
Explanation:
<u>Task 1: </u>
<u>The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.</u>
When the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves , both reserves and debt increase by $100 , therefore increase in debt as in any balance sheet , the total value of accounts on the left hand should be equal to the right hand , so when there is increase in reserves , there will be increase in debt.
<u>Task 2:</u>
<u>It specifies a minimum leverage ratio for all banks
</u>
leverage ratio initially = total assets / capital = 1750 / 125 = 14
leverage ratio new value = total assets / capital = 1850 / 125 = 14.8 ( the assets increase by $100 with increase in reserves)
<u>Task 3</u>
<u>Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.</u>
Capital requirement are there to ensure that bank have enough capital to repay the depositors and debtors and if a bank holds a higher percent of risky assets , capital requirements will be higher so that the bank remains solvent hence option a is right answer.
Yes, it would matter. If Wade was primarily concerned with the tax effect, he should give the car to his daughter and let her sell it. Conveniently, the limit on how much one can give without paying federal taxes on that gift (other than to charity), is $13,000. This means wade will pay no tax when he gifts the car to his daughter. If he sells it himself, he will need to pay tax on the gain he realizes on the sale of the car, since he will have made a profit on the sale.
His daughter, when she sells the car, will also have to recognize the gain on the sale of the vehicle. However, she is apparently in a much lower income bracket than Wade, and thus may pay even less tax on her 13,000 gain than Wade would have paid on his $3600 profit.
Answer:
$0.02
Explanation:
C&A sells T-shirts for $20 that cost $5 to produce
The annual holfing cost percentage is 10%
The T-shirts turn 25 times a year
The first step is to calculate the holding cost
= $5 × 10/100
= $5 × 0.1
= 0.5
Therefore, since the T-shirts turn over 25 times a year then, the holding cost that C&A incurs for each T-shirts can be calculated as follows
= 0.5/25 times
= $0.02
Hence C&A incur a holding cost of $0.02 for each T-shirts
Where’s the question lol , it all cut off
